Question 10: Ten (10) items of a product are sold for 100 at 10% profit. If 12 items of the same product are sold for 100, then the gain/loss (in %) would be:

Options: (a) 8% gain, (b) 10% gain, (c) 8% loss, (d) 10% loss

Explanation:

• The cost price of 12 items exceeds the selling price of 100, indicating a loss.
• The loss percentage is approximately 8.33%, which rounds to 8% for the given options.

Answer: (c) 8% loss

Question 11: Which of the following is/are Fundamental Duties under the Constitution of India?

1. Respect the National Song of India
2. Renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
3. Abjure violence
4. Render military service when called upon to do so

Options: (a) 1 only, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 2 and 4

Solution: The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are listed under Article 51A of the Constitution of India. Let’s evaluate each option:

1. Respect the National Song of India:
   • Article 51A(a) states: “to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.”
   • The National Anthem is explicitly mentioned, but the National Song (Vande Mataram) is considered part of national symbols and is implied under this duty.
   • This is a Fundamental Duty.
2. Renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women:
   • Article 51A(e) states: “to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India… and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.”
   • This is explicitly a Fundamental Duty.
3. Abjure violence:
   • Article 51A(e) also includes “to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood,” which implies abjuring violence to maintain peace and harmony.
   • This is considered a Fundamental Duty.
4. Render military service when called upon to do so:
   • There is no Fundamental Duty in Article 51A that mandates rendering military service.
   • This is not a Fundamental Duty.

Evaluation of options:

• (a) 1 only: Incorrect, as 2 and 3 are also Fundamental Duties.
• (b) 2 and 3: Correct, as both are covered under Article 51A.
• (c) 3 and 4: Incorrect, as 4 is not a Fundamental Duty.
• (d) 2 and 4: Incorrect, as 4 is not a Fundamental Duty.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Question 12: Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Human Rights Commission, India (NHRC)?Options:

1. It is a constitutional body.
2. Chairperson of NHRC has to be a former Chief Justice of India.
3. There shall be at least one woman member of NHRC.

Options: (a) 1, 2, and 3, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 only, (d) 3 only

Solution: Let’s evaluate each statement:

1. It is a constitutional body:
   • The NHRC is established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, a statutory law, not directly under the Constitution of India.
   • Constitutional bodies are those explicitly mentioned in the Constitution (e.g., Election Commission, UPSC).
   • The NHRC is a statutory body, not a constitutional body.
   • This statement is incorrect.
2. Chairperson of NHRC has to be a former Chief Justice of India:
   • Section 3 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, states that the Chairperson of the NHRC must be a former Chief Justice of India or a former Judge of the Supreme Court (amended to include Supreme Court judges in 2019).
   • For simplicity, the question likely refers to the earlier requirement where the Chairperson was typically a former Chief Justice of India.
   • This statement is correct based on common interpretation and historical practice.
3. There shall be at least one woman member of NHRC:
   • The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, does not explicitly mandate that there must be at least one woman member in the NHRC.
   • The composition includes a Chairperson, members who are former judges, and others with expertise in human rights, but no specific gender requirement is mentioned.
   • This statement is incorrect.

Evaluation of options:

• (a) 1, 2, and 3: Incorrect, as 1 and 3 are false.
• (b) 2 and 3: Incorrect, as 3 is false.
• (c) 2 only: Correct, as only statement 2 is true.
• (d) 3 only: Incorrect, as 3 is false.

Answer: (c) 2 only

Question 13: Which of the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is/are correct?

Options: Its orders can be challenged before a High Court. It has the same power like a High Court in respect of contempt of itself. Options: (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, under Article 323A of the Constitution of India. Let’s evaluate each statement: Its orders can be challenged before a High Court: As per Article 323A and the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, CAT’s orders can be challenged through a writ petition under Article 226/227 of the Constitution in a High Court. The Supreme Court’s ruling in L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) clarified that CAT’s orders are subject to judicial review by High Courts. This statement is correct. It has the same power like a High Court in respect of contempt of itself: Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, grants CAT the same powers as a High Court to punish for contempt of itself, as per the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. This statement is correct.

Evaluation of options:

(a) 1 only: Incorrect, as both statements are true.

(b) 2 only: Incorrect, as both statements are true.

(c) Both 1 and 2: Correct, as both statements are true.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2: Incorrect, as both are true.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Question 14: Which of the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India is/are correct?

Options:

1. It is obligatory on the part of every foreigner who is in India to observe Fundamental Duties given in the Constitution of India.
2. Some Fundamental Rights, given in the Constitution of India, are available to foreign nationals who are in India.

Options: (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: Let’s evaluate each statement:

1. It is obligatory on the part of every foreigner who is in India to observe Fundamental Duties given in the Constitution of India:
   • Fundamental Duties under Article 51A apply explicitly to citizens of India.
   • The Constitution does not impose these duties on foreigners residing in or visiting India.
   • This statement is incorrect.
2. Some Fundamental Rights, given in the Constitution of India, are available to foreign nationals who are in India:
   • Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution are available to both citizens and non-citizens (foreigners) in certain cases.
   • For example:
     • Article 14: Right to equality before the law applies to all persons, including foreigners.
     • Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty applies to all persons.
     • Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences applies to all persons.
   • However, some rights (e.g., Article 15, 19) are exclusive to citizens.
   • This statement is correct.

Evaluation of options:

• (a) 1 only: Incorrect, as 1 is false.
• (b) 2 only: Correct, as only 2 is true.
• (c) Both 1 and 2: Incorrect, as 1 is false.
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Incorrect, as 2 is true.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Question 15: Which of the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) under the Constitution of India is/are correct?

Options: DPSPs strive to minimise inequalities of income amongst individuals and groups. They strive to minimise inequalities of status amongst individuals and groups.

Options:

(a) 1 only,

(b) 2 only,

(c) Both 1 and 2,

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36–51) of the Constitution of India. They are guidelines for the state to promote social and economic justice.
Let’s evaluate each statement:
DPSPs strive to minimise inequalities of income amongst individuals and groups: Article 38(2) states: “The State shall, in particular, strive to minimise the inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.
” This explicitly mentions minimizing inequalities in income. This statement is correct. They strive to minimise inequalities of status amongst individuals and groups: The same Article 38(2) also mentions striving to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities. This statement is correct.

Evaluation of options:

(a) 1 only: Incorrect, as both statements are true.

(b) 2 only: Incorrect, as both statements are true.

(c) Both 1 and 2: Correct, as both are explicitly mentioned in Article 38(2).

(d) Neither 1 nor 2: Incorrect, as both are true.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Question 16: In the Revolt of 1857, the Kol tribals of Chotanagpur were led by:

Options: (a) Gonoo, (b) Birjis, (c) Shah Mal, (d) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah

Solution: The Revolt of 1857 involved various tribal and regional groups in India resisting British rule. The Kol tribals of Chotanagpur (present-day Jharkhand) participated in this uprising, led by their leader Gonoo.

Explanation: Gonoo: A tribal leader from the Kol community in Chotanagpur, he led the Kol Rebellion in 1857 against British oppression, particularly against land revenue policies and exploitation.

Birjis: Refers to Birjis Qadr, the young Nawab of Awadh, who was a leader in Lucknow during the Revolt of 1857, not associated with the Kol tribals.

Shah Mal: A leader of the 1857 Revolt in Baraut, Uttar Pradesh, associated with the Jat community, not the Kol tribals.

Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah: A prominent leader in Awadh, known for his role in the Revolt of 1857, but not connected to the Kol tribals. The Kol Rebellion in Chotanagpur was specifically led by Gonoo.

Answer: (a) Gonoo

Question 17: In the ancient Sanskrit literature, the name ‘Pragjyotisha’ was used as a designation for:

Options: (a) Assam, (b) Odisha, (c) Manipur, (d) Bihar

Solution: In ancient Sanskrit literature, Pragjyotisha is a historical name associated with the region of Assam. It is mentioned in texts like the Mahabharata and Kalika Purana as a kingdom in the northeastern part of India, with its capital at Pragjyotishpura (modern-day Guwahati).

Explanation:

Assam: Pragjyotisha is widely recognized as an ancient name for Assam, known for its association with the legendary king Narakasura and later the Kamarupa kingdom.

Odisha: Known as Kalinga or Utkala in ancient texts, not Pragjyotisha.

Manipur: Referred to as Manipur or Kangleipak in historical contexts, not Pragjyotisha.

Bihar: Associated with names like Magadha, not Pragjyotisha.

Answer: (a) Assam

Question 18: Which one of the following was the capital of Travancore in the 18th century?

Options: (a) Calicut, (b) Chirakkal, (c) Trivandrum, (d) Cochin

Solution: The Kingdom of Travancore was a princely state in southern India, and its capital in the 18th century was Padmanabhapuram. However, in the early 18th century, the administrative functions began shifting to Trivandrum (Thiruvananthapuram) under rulers like Marthanda Varma. By the late 18th century, Trivandrum was established as the capital.

Explanation:

• Calicut: The center of the Zamorin’s kingdom, not Travancore.
• Chirakkal: Associated with the Kolathiri rulers in northern Kerala, not Travancore.
• Trivandrum: Became the capital of Travancore in the 18th century, especially after Marthanda Varma’s reign (1729–1758).
• Cochin: The capital of the Kingdom of Cochin, a neighboring state, not Travancore.

Given the options, Trivandrum is the correct choice for the capital of Travancore in the 18th century.

Answer: (c) Trivandrum

Question 19: Which one among the following is not included among the mahajanapadas in the early Buddhist literature?

Options: (a) Vajji, (b) Kalinga, (c) Gandhara, (d) Avanti

Solution: The Mahajanapadas were sixteen prominent kingdoms or republics in ancient India during the 6th–5th century BCE, as mentioned in early Buddhist texts like the Anguttara Nikaya. The list typically includes:

1. Anga, 2. Magadha, 3. Kasi, 4. Kosala, 5. Vajji, 6. Malla, 7. Chedi, 8. Vatsa, 9. Kuru, 10. Panchala, 11. Matsya, 12. Surasena, 13. Assaka, 14. Avanti, 15. Gandhara, 16. Kamboja.

Let’s evaluate the options:

• Vajji: A confederacy of clans (e.g., Licchavis), included in the Mahajanapadas.
• Kalinga: Not listed among the sixteen Mahajanapadas in Buddhist texts. Kalinga (modern-day Odisha) was a significant region but not classified as a Mahajanapada in early Buddhist literature.
• Gandhara: Included in the Mahajanapadas, located in present-day northwest India/Pakistan.
• Avanti: Included in the Mahajanapadas, located in present-day Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation: Kalinga is not part of the traditional list of sixteen Mahajanapadas, making it the correct answer.

Answer: (b) Kalinga

Question 20: The Dhammapada is a part of:

Options: (a) Majjhima Nikaya, (b) Vinaya Pitaka, (c) Khuddaka Nikaya, (d) Jatakas

Solution: The Dhammapada is a collection of verses attributed to the Buddha, focusing on ethical and spiritual teachings. It is part of the Pali Canon, specifically within the Sutta Pitaka.

The Sutta Pitaka is divided into five Nikayas:

1. Digha Nikaya
2. Majjhima Nikaya
3. Samyutta Nikaya
4. Anguttara Nikaya
5. Khuddaka Nikaya

The Dhammapada is one of the texts in the Khuddaka Nikaya, which contains miscellaneous shorter texts.

Explanation:

• Majjhima Nikaya: Contains middle-length discourses, not the Dhammapada.
• Vinaya Pitaka: Deals with monastic rules, not the Dhammapada.
• Khuddaka Nikaya: Includes the Dhammapada, along with texts like the Sutta Nipata and Theragatha.
• Jatakas: Stories of the Buddha’s past lives, also part of the Khuddaka Nikaya, but the Dhammapada is distinct.

Answer: (c) Khuddaka Nikaya

Question 21: Which of the following statements with reference to the evolution of the Lithosphere is/are correct?

Options:

1. Due to the gradual increase in density, the temperature inside the Earth had increased.
2. In the process of evolution, the material inside the Earth started getting separated depending upon their densities.

Options: (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: The lithosphere is the Earth’s rigid outer layer, consisting of the crust and upper mantle. The statements refer to the early evolution of the Earth’s structure.

1. Due to the gradual increase in density, the temperature inside the Earth had increased:
   • During the Earth’s formation, the accretion of material and gravitational compression caused an increase in density and temperature.
   • However, the statement reverses the causality: the increase in temperature was primarily due to processes like accretion, radioactive decay, and gravitational compression, not a “gradual increase in density.” Density changes were a consequence of material differentiation, not the cause of temperature increase.
   • This statement is incorrect due to the incorrect causal relationship.
2. In the process of evolution, the material inside the Earth started getting separated depending upon their densities:
   • This refers to planetary differentiation, where denser materials (e.g., iron, nickel) sank to form the Earth’s core, while less dense materials (e.g., silicates) formed the mantle and crust.
   • This process is well-documented in the Earth’s early history, driven by gravity and heat, leading to the layered structure of the Earth (core, mantle, crust).
   • This statement is correct.

Evaluation of options:

• (a) 1 only: Incorrect, as 1 is false.
• (b) 2 only: Correct, as only 2 is true.
• (c) Both 1 and 2: Incorrect, as 1 is false.
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Incorrect, as 2 is true.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Question 22: Which of the following statements with reference to ocean crust is/are correct?

Options:

1. The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks.
2. The ocean crust rocks equidistant on either side of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show similarities in terms of magnetic properties.

Options: (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: Let’s evaluate each statement about the ocean crust:

1. The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks:
   • Oceanic crust is formed at mid-oceanic ridges through seafloor spreading, where new crust is continuously created by volcanic activity.
   • The oldest oceanic crust is about 200 million years old (e.g., in parts of the Pacific and Atlantic), while continental crust can be as old as 4 billion years (e.g., cratons like the Canadian Shield).
   • Oceanic crust is recycled via subduction at tectonic plate boundaries, making it much younger than continental crust.
   • This statement is correct.
2. The ocean crust rocks equidistant on either side of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show similarities in terms of magnetic properties:
   • This refers to the phenomenon of paleomagnetism and magnetic striping on the ocean floor.
   • As new oceanic crust forms at mid-oceanic ridges, it records the Earth’s magnetic field. The Earth’s magnetic field reverses periodically (normal to reversed polarity), creating symmetrical magnetic stripes on either side of the ridge.
   • Rocks equidistant from the ridge crest, formed at the same time, exhibit similar magnetic properties (e.g., polarity), supporting the theory of seafloor spreading.
   • This statement is correct.

Evaluation of options:

• (a) 1 only: Incorrect, as both statements are true.
• (b) 2 only: Incorrect, as both statements are true.
• (c) Both 1 and 2: Correct, as both statements are true.
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Incorrect, as both are true.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Question 23: Which of the following statements with reference to the Indian Tectonic Plate is/are correct?

Options:

1. The subduction zone along the Himalayas forms its northern boundary.
2. The eastern margin is a spreading site, lying to the west of Australia in the form of an oceanic ridge in the Southwest Pacific Ocean.

Options: (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: The Indian Tectonic Plate is a major tectonic plate that includes the Indian subcontinent and parts of the Indian Ocean. Let’s evaluate each statement:

1. The subduction zone along the Himalayas forms its northern boundary:
   • The northern boundary of the Indian Plate is where it collides with the Eurasian Plate, resulting in the formation of the Himalayas through a continental-continental collision, not a subduction zone.
   • Subduction zones occur where an oceanic plate is forced beneath another plate (oceanic or continental). The Himalayas are a result of compressional forces, not subduction, as both plates are continental.
   • This statement is incorrect.
2. The eastern margin is a spreading site, lying to the west of Australia in the form of an oceanic ridge in the Southwest Pacific Ocean:
   • The eastern margin of the Indian Plate is primarily associated with the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Andaman-Sumatra subduction zone, where the Indian Plate subducts beneath the Burma Plate or Sunda Plate.
   • The spreading site (mid-oceanic ridge) referenced here likely refers to the Carlsberg Ridge or Central Indian Ridge, but these are located in the Indian Ocean, not the Southwest Pacific Ocean, and not specifically at the eastern margin. The eastern margin is not a spreading site; it is a convergent boundary.
   • The statement incorrectly places the spreading site “west of Australia in the Southwest Pacific Ocean,” which is geographically inaccurate, as the Southwest Pacific is east of Australia, and the Indian Plate’s spreading ridges are in the Indian Ocean.
   • This statement is incorrect.

Evaluation of options:

• (a) 1 only: Incorrect, as 1 is false.
• (b) 2 only: Incorrect, as 2 is false.
• (c) Both 1 and 2: Incorrect, as both are false.
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Correct, as both statements are incorrect.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 24: Which of the following statements with reference to mantle is/are correct?

Options:

1. Moho’s discontinuity is at the uppermost part of the mantle.
2. The lower portion of the mantle is called the asthenosphere.

Options: (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: The mantle is the Earth’s layer between the crust and the core, extending from about 30–50 km to ~2900 km depth. Let’s evaluate each statement:

1. Moho’s discontinuity is at the uppermost part of the mantle:
   • The Mohorovičić discontinuity (Moho) is the boundary between the Earth’s crust and the upper mantle.
   • It marks the transition from the crust (less dense) to the mantle (denser), typically at depths of 5–10 km beneath oceans and 30–50 km beneath continents.
   • The Moho is indeed at the uppermost part of the mantle, as it defines the boundary where the mantle begins.
   • This statement is correct.
2. The lower portion of the mantle is called the asthenosphere:
   • The asthenosphere is a semi-fluid, ductile layer of the upper mantle, located just below the rigid lithosphere (which includes the crust and uppermost mantle).
   • The asthenosphere typically extends from ~100–200 km to ~410 km depth, making it part of the upper mantle, not the lower mantle.
   • The lower mantle (below ~660 km to ~2900 km) is solid and more rigid, not the asthenosphere.
   • This statement is incorrect.

Evaluation of options:

• (a) 1 only: Correct, as only 1 is true.
• (b) 2 only: Incorrect, as 2 is false.
• (c) Both 1 and 2: Incorrect, as 2 is false.
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Incorrect, as 1 is true.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Question 25: Which of the following statements with reference to tides is/are correct?

Options:

1. The time between the low tide and high tide, when the tide is rising, is called the flow or flood.
2. Tides are helpful in desilting the sediments.

Options: (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: Tides are the periodic rise and fall of sea levels caused by the gravitational forces of the Moon and Sun. Let’s evaluate each statement:

1. The time between the low tide and high tide, when the tide is rising, is called the flow or flood:
   • The period when the tide is rising from low tide to high tide is known as the flood tide or flow.
   • This is a standard term in oceanography, describing the incoming or rising tide.
   • This statement is correct.
2. Tides are helpful in desilting the sediments:
   • Tides, particularly in estuaries and coastal areas, create currents that can move and transport sediments, helping to flush out or desilt sediment deposits.
   • For example, tidal currents in harbors and rivers prevent sediment buildup by carrying it away, aiding in maintaining navigable channels.
   • This statement is correct.

Evaluation of options:

• (a) 1 only: Incorrect, as both statements are true.
• (b) 2 only: Incorrect, as both statements are true.
• (c) Both 1 and 2: Correct, as both statements are true.
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Incorrect, as both are true.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Question 26: Which one of the following rivers marks the western boundary of the Ganga Plains?

Options: (a) Chambal, (b) Ghaggar, (c) Luni, (d) Yamuna

Solution: The Ganga Plains (Indo-Gangetic Plains) are a large fertile plain encompassing northern India, formed by the deposition of sediments by the Ganga and its tributaries. The western boundary of the Ganga Plains is marked by the Yamuna River.

Explanation:

• Chambal: A tributary of the Yamuna, flowing through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, it lies within the Ganga Plains, not at its boundary.
• Ghaggar: A seasonal river in Haryana and Rajasthan, it flows west of the Yamuna and is associated with the ancient Saraswati River, not the western boundary of the Ganga Plains.
• Luni: A river in Rajasthan, flowing into the Rann of Kutch, far west of the Ganga Plains, and not relevant to its boundary.
• Yamuna: Flows parallel to the Ganga and forms the western boundary of the Ganga Plains in the northern part of India, separating the plains from the Aravalli and Vindhya regions to the west.

Answer: (d) Yamuna

Question 27: Which one of the following radiations is absorbed by the greenhouse gases?

Options: (a) Ultraviolet rays of Sun, (b) Radio waves, (c) Infrared radiation, (d) Sound radiation

Solution: Greenhouse gases (e.g., CO₂, CH₄, H₂O vapor) absorb and trap certain types of radiation, contributing to the greenhouse effect. They primarily absorb infrared radiation.

Explanation:

• Ultraviolet rays of Sun: These are mostly absorbed by the ozone layer in the stratosphere, not by greenhouse gases in the troposphere.
• Radio waves: These are not significantly absorbed by greenhouse gases; they pass through the atmosphere with minimal interaction.
• Infrared radiation: Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation emitted from the Earth’s surface, trapping heat and causing the greenhouse effect.
• Sound radiation: Sound is not a form of electromagnetic radiation and is not absorbed by greenhouse gases.

Answer: (c) Infrared radiation

Question 28: One horsepower is equal to:

Options: (a) 100 W, (b) 1000 W, (c) 746 W, (d) 786 W

Solution: One horsepower (hp) is a unit of power, historically based on the work a horse could perform. In the metric system:

Explanation:

• The conversion is a standard definition in physics and engineering.
• 100 W and 1000 W are incorrect, as they do not match the precise value.
• 786 W is close but incorrect; the accurate value is 746 W.

Answer: (c) 746 W

Question 29: If the volume of a fixed mass of an ideal gas is halved at a constant temperature, the pressure inside the container would:

Options: (a) be doubled, (b) be halved, (c) remain the same, (d) be one-fourth

Explanation: Boyle’s Law states that at constant temperature, pressure and volume are inversely proportional. Halving the volume increases the pressure by a factor of 2.

Answer: (a) be doubled

Question 30: Dioptre is the unit of:

Options: (a) diffusion rate, (b) power of lens, (c) dipole moment, (d) intensity of light

Solution: The dioptre (or diopter) is a unit used to measure the power of a lens, defined as the reciprocal of the focal length in meters

Answer: (b) power of lens

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