Q.no. 1
Question: “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
Options:
(a) the Champaran Satyagraha,
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi,
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London,
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement
Explanation (English): Mahatma Gandhi said this during the Dandi Salt March in 1930 when he broke the British salt law to protest against their rule. It showed he was ready to fight unjust laws peacefully.
The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): गांधीजी ने 1930 में दांडी नमक मार्च के समय यह कहा था, जब उन्होंने अंग्रेजों के नमक कानून को तोड़ा। यह दिखाता है कि वह गलत कानूनों के खिलाफ शांतिपूर्ण लड़ाई लड़ना चाहते थे। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 2
Question: The famous female figurine known as Dancing Girl, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
Options:
(a) carnelian,
(b) clay,
(c) bronze,
(d) gold
Explanation (English): The Dancing Girl is a small statue from the Harappan city of Mohenjo-daro, made of bronze (a metal) using a special technique called lost-wax casting.
The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): डांसिंग गर्ल मोहनजोदड़ो से मिली एक छोटी मूर्ति है, जो कांस्य (एक धातु) से बनी है। इसे खास तरीके से बनाया गया था। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 3
Question: Who provided legal defense to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
Options: (a) C. R. Das,
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya,
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami,
(d) M. A. Jinnah
Explanation (English): After the violent Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, C. R. Das, a famous lawyer and leader, helped defend the arrested people in court.
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): 1922 में चौरी चौरा की हिंसक घटना के बाद, सी. आर. दास ने गिरफ्तार लोगों की कोर्ट में मदद की। वह एक बड़े वकील और नेता थे। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 4
Question: Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji decided to include the upliftment of Harijans in his political and social programme?
Options:
(a) The Poona Pact,
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin (Delhi Pact),
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement,
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation (English): The Poona Pact in 1932 was an agreement to give better representation to Harijans (Dalits). After this, Gandhi focused on their upliftment.
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): 1932 में पूना पैक्ट से हरिजनों (दलितों) को बेहतर अधिकार मिले। इसके बाद गांधीजी ने उनकी बेहतरी पर ध्यान दिया। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 5
Question: Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya, II. Pineapple, III. Guava. How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All the three, (d) None
Explanation (English): The Portuguese brought papaya and pineapple to India in the 16th-17th centuries, but guava was already here. So, only two fruits were introduced.
The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): पुर्तगालियों ने 16वीं-17वीं सदी में पपीता और अनानास भारत लाए, लेकिन अमरूद पहले से था। इसलिए, सिर्फ दो फल आए। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 6
Question:
Consider the following countries:
I. United Kingdom, I
I. Denmark,
III. New Zealand,
IV. Australia,
V. Brazil.
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
Options:
(a) All the five,
(b) Only four,
(c) Only three,
(d) Only two,
(e) None
Explanation (English): Time zones depend on a country’s size. Only Australia and Brazil are big enough to have more than four time zones.
The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): समय क्षेत्र देश के आकार पर निर्भर करते हैं। सिर्फ ऑस्ट्रेलिया और ब्राजील में चार से ज्यादा समय क्षेत्र हैं। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 7
Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English): Anadyr and Nome are close but separated by the International Date Line, so they have different days. Statement I is correct, but II is wrong because Monday in Anadyr is Sunday in Nome.
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): अनादिर और नोम पास हैं, लेकिन अंतरराष्ट्रीय तारीख रेखा की वजह से अलग दिन हैं। पहला बयान सही है, लेकिन दूसरा गलत है क्योंकि अनादिर में सोमवार तो नोम में रविवार होता है। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 8
Question: Who among the following was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement?
Options:
(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker,
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar,
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav,
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar
Explanation (English): Periyar started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 to fight for equality and against caste discrimination in South India.
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): पेरियार ने 1925 में सेल्फ-रिस्पेक्ट मूवमेंट शुरू किया ताकि दक्षिण भारत में बराबरी और जाति भेदभाव के खिलाफ लड़ा जाए। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 9
Question:
Consider the following pairs:
I. Botswana: Diamond, II.
Chile: Lithium, III.
Indonesia: Nickel.
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Options:
(a) Only one,
(b) Only two,
(c) All the three,
(d) None
Explanation (English): Botswana is known for diamonds, Chile for lithium, and Indonesia for nickel. All pairs are correct. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): बोत्सवाना हीरे, चिली लिथियम, और इंडोनेशिया निकल के लिए प्रसिद्ध हैं। सभी जोड़े सही हैं। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 10
Question:
Consider the following pairs:
I. Mallorca: Spain,
II. Normandy: France,
III. Sardinia: Italy.
Resource-rich in:
Diamond, Lithium, Nickel.
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Options:
(a) Only one,
(b) Only two,
(c) All the three,
(d) None
Explanation (English): Mallorca in Spain is known for lithium, but Normandy (France) and Sardinia (Italy) are not famous for diamonds or nickel.
Only one pair is correct. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): मालोर्का (स्पेन) में लिथियम है, लेकिन नॉरमैंडी (फ्रांस) और सार्डिनिया (इटली) हीरे या निकल के लिए प्रसिद्ध नहीं हैं। सिर्फ एक जोड़ा सही है। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 11
Question:
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores.
The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹30,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): Revenue deficit is money spent minus money earned (80,000 – 60,000 = 20,000). Fiscal deficit adds borrowings (20,000 + 10,000 = 30,000). Primary deficit subtracts interest (30,000 – 6,000 = 24,000, not 4,000). Only I and II are correct.
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): रेवेन्यू डेफिसिट है खर्च माइनस कमाई (80,000 – 60,000 = 20,000)। फिस्कल डेफिसिट में उधार जोड़ा जाता है (20,000 + 10,000 = 30,000)। प्राइमरी डेफिसिट में ब्याज घटाया जाता है (30,000 – 6,000 = 24,000, 4,000 नहीं)। सिर्फ I और II सही हैं। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 12
Question:
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
Options:
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran,
(b) India to Central Asia via China,
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar,
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Explanation (English): INSTC is a transport route that connects India to Central Asia and Europe through Iran using ships, trains, and roads.
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): INSTC एक परिवहन मार्ग है जो भारत को ईरान के रास्ते मध्य एशिया और यूरोप से जोड़ता है, जहाजों, ट्रेनों और सड़कों से। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 13
Question:
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Options:
(a) Both I and II correct and II explains I,
(b) Both I and II correct but II does not explain I,
(c) I correct but II not correct,
(d) I not correct but II correct
Explanation (English): The USA makes more ethanol than Brazil, so Statement I is wrong. Statement II is correct because Brazil uses sugarcane, and the USA uses corn for ethanol.
The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): अमेरिका ब्राजील से ज्यादा इथेनॉल बनाता है, इसलिए पहला बयान गलत है। दूसरा बयान सही है क्योंकि ब्राजील में गन्ना और अमेरिका में मक्का इथेनॉल के लिए उपयोग होता है। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 14
Question:
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Options:
(a) I only,
(b) II only,
(c) Both I and II,
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English): Wet-bulb temperature measures heat and humidity. If it’s too high (above 35°C), sweating doesn’t cool the body, making survival hard. Floods and cyclones aren’t directly related. Statement II is correct. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): वेट-बल्ब तापमान गर्मी और नमी को मापता है। अगर यह 35 डिग्री से ज्यादा हो, तो पसीना शरीर को ठंडा नहीं करता, जिससे जीवित रहना मुश्किल है। बाढ़ और तूफान का इससे सीधा संबंध नहीं है। दूसरा बयान सही है। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 15
Question: A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
Options:
(a) 48,500 crores,
(b) 51,500 crores,
(c) 58,500 crores,
(d) None of the above
Explanation (English): Fiscal deficit is 50,000 crores.
Primary deficit is fiscal deficit minus interest payments (50,000 – 1,500 = 48,500 crores).
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): फिस्कल डेफिसिट 50,000 करोड़ है। प्राइमरी डेफिसिट है फिस्कल डेफिसिट माइनस ब्याज (50,000 – 1,500 = 48,500 करोड़)। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 16
Question:
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Options:
(a) I, II and III,
(b) I, II and IV,
(c) I, III and IV,
(d) II, III and IV
Explanation (English): The 15th Finance Commission gave ₹4,800 crores for education, suggested 41% (not 45%) tax sharing, and included tax effort criteria. It didn’t give ₹45,000 crores for agriculture. I, II, and IV are correct.
The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): 15वां वित्त आयोग ने शिक्षा के लिए 4,800 करोड़ दिए, 41% (45% नहीं) टैक्स बांटने को कहा, और टैक्स प्रयास मानदंड जोड़ा। कृषि के लिए 45,000 करोड़ नहीं दिए। I, II, और IV सही हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 17
Question:
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after World War II.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): IBRD gives loans to middle-income countries and was created after World War II to rebuild Europe. It works with others, not alone, to reduce poverty. I and III are correct.
The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): IBRD मध्यम आय वाले देशों को कर्ज देता है और द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध के बाद यूरोप के पुनर्निर्माण के लिए बना था। यह अकेले गरीबी कम नहीं करता। I और III सही हैं। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 18
Question:
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: I. RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Options:
(a) I only,
(b) I and III,
(c) II only,
(d) III only
Explanation (English): RTGS transfers money instantly, but NEFT takes a little time. There are no charges for inward RTGS transactions, and both have similar operating hours.
Only I is correct. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): RTGS में पैसा तुरंत ट्रांसफर होता है, लेकिन NEFT में थोड़ा समय लगता है। RTGS में इनवर्ड ट्रांजेक्शन पर चार्ज नहीं है, और दोनों के समय समान हैं। सिर्फ I सही है। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 19
Question:
Consider the following countries:
I. United Arab Emirates, II. France, III. Germany, IV. Singapore, V. Bangladesh.
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
Options: (a) Only two, (b) Only three, (c) Only four, (d) All the five
Explanation (English): UPI is a way to pay online. UAE, France, and Singapore accept UPI for payments, but Germany and Bangladesh don’t.
So, three countries use it. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): UPI ऑनलाइन पेमेंट का तरीका है। UAE, फ्रांस, और सिंगापुर में UPI से पेमेंट होता है, लेकिन जर्मनी और बांग्लादेश में नहीं। तीन देश इसका उपयोग करते हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 20
Question:
Consider the following statements about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) I and III only, (c) II and III only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): This scheme wants to put solar panels on 1 crore homes, train people to install and fix them, and create over 3 lakh skilled workers.
All statements are correct. The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): यह योजना 1 करोड़ घरों में सोलर पैनल लगाना चाहती है, लोगों को इंस्टॉल और ठीक करने की ट्रेनिंग देना, और 3 लाख से ज्यादा कुशल लोग तैयार करना। सभी बयान सही हैं। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 21
Question: Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Options:
(a) Both I and II correct and II explains I,
(b) Both I and II correct but II does not explain I,
(c) I correct but II not correct,
(d) I not correct but II correct
Explanation (English): Rare earth elements glow (phosphorescent), which helps make TV and computer screens bright. Both statements are correct, and II explains why I is true. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): कुछ रेयर अर्थ तत्व चमकते हैं (फॉस्फोरसेंट), जिससे टीवी और कंप्यूटर स्क्रीन बनती हैं। दोनों बयान सही हैं, और दूसरा बयान पहले को समझाता है। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 22
Question: Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
II. Kavach is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. Kavach system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Options:
(a) I and II only,
(b) II and III only,
(c) I and III only,
(d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): The National Rail Plan aims for a modern railway by 2030, not 2028. Kavach, an Indian safety system, uses RFID tags but wasn’t made with Germany. I and III are correct. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): नेशनल रेल प्लान 2030 तक आधुनिक रेलवे चाहता है, 2028 नहीं। कवच एक भारतीय सुरक्षा सिस्टम है, जिसमें RFID टैग हैं, लेकिन जर्मनी के साथ नहीं बना। I और III सही हैं। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 23
Question:
Consider the following space missions:
I. Axiom-4,
II. SpaDeX,
III. Gaganyaan.
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?
Options:
(a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All the three, (d) None
Explanation (English): Microgravity research happens in space where things feel weightless. Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan do this research, but SpaDeX is about satellite docking. Two missions support it. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): माइक्रोग्रैविटी रिसर्च अंतरिक्ष में होती है जहां चीजें बिना वजन की लगती हैं। एक्सिऑम-4 और गगनयान यह करते हैं, लेकिन स्पाDeX सैटेलाइट जोड़ने के लिए है। दो मिशन इसका समर्थन करते हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 24
Question: With reference to India’s defense, consider the following pairs:
I. Dornier-228: Maritime patrol aircraft,
II. IL-76: Supersonic combat aircraft,
III. C-17 Globemaster III: Military transport aircraft.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Options:
(a) Only one,
(b) Only two,
(c) All the three,
(d) None
Explanation (English):
Dornier-228 patrols seas, and C-17 transports troops,
so they’re correct. IL-76 is a transport plane, not a combat aircraft. Two pairs are correct.
The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): डोर्नियर-228 समुद्र की निगरानी करता है, और C-17 सैनिकों को ले जाता है, ये सही हैं। IL-76 परिवहन विमान है, युद्ध विमान नहीं। दो जोड़े सही हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 25
Question:
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
Options:
(a) silver iodide and potassium nitrate,
(b) silver nitrate and potassium chloride,
(c) silver iodide and potassium iodide,
(d) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
Explanation (English): To make rain artificially (cloud seeding), we use silver iodide and potassium iodide to help clouds form raindrops, which can clean air pollution.
The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): कृत्रिम बारिश (क्लाउड सीडिंग) के लिए सिल्वर आयोडाइड और पोटैशियम आयोडाइड का उपयोग होता है, जो बादलों को बारिश में बदलता है और प्रदूषण कम करता है। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 26
Question:
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Options:
(a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English):
The President can forgive punishments, but courts can check if it’s fair (limited review). The President needs government advice, so II is wrong.
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): राष्ट्रपति सजा माफ कर सकते हैं, लेकिन कोर्ट इसे थोड़ा जांच सकता है। उन्हें सरकार की सलाह चाहिए, इसलिए दूसरा बयान गलत है। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 27
Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
III. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): When the Lok Sabha dissolves, the Speaker stays until the new one starts (I is correct).
The Speaker can be removed with a majority vote after 14 days’ notice (II is correct). The Constitution doesn’t force the Speaker to resign from their party (III is wrong).
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): लोकसभा भंग होने पर स्पीकर नए सत्र तक रहता है (I सही)। स्पीकर को बहुमत और 14 दिन के नोटिस से हटाया जा सकता है (II सही)। संविधान में पार्टी छोड़ने की बाध्यता नहीं है (III गलत)। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 28
Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English): Under the 10th Schedule, the Speaker decides disqualification, not the President with ministers, so I is wrong. The term ‘political party’ is in the 10th Schedule, so II is wrong.
The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): 10वीं अनुसूची में अयोग्यता का फैसला स्पीकर करता है, न कि राष्ट्रपति और मंत्री, इसलिए I गलत है। ‘पॉलिटिकल पार्टी’ शब्द संविधान में है, इसलिए II गलत है। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 29
Question:
Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Options: (a) Both I and II correct and II explains I, (b) Both I and II correct but II does not explain I, (c) I correct but II not correct, (d) I not correct but II correct
Explanation (English): States can make rules for minor minerals like sand, so I is wrong. The Centre can notify what counts as minor minerals, so II is correct.
The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): राज्य छोटे खनिजों जैसे रेत के लिए नियम बना सकते हैं, इसलिए I गलत है। केंद्र छोटे खनिजों को अधिसूचित कर सकता है, इसलिए II सही है। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 30
Question: Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
Options: (a) The European Union, (b) The World Bank, (c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development, (d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
Explanation (English): The European Union made the Nature Restoration Law to fight climate change and protect plants and animals. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): यूरोपीय संघ ने प्रकृति बहाली कानून बनाया ताकि जलवायु परिवर्तन और पौधों-जानवरों की रक्षा हो। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 31
Question: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): An Ordinance can change Central laws (I is correct) and apply from an earlier date (III is correct). It cannot take away Fundamental Rights (II is wrong). The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): अध्यादेश केंद्रीय कानून बदल सकता है (I सही) और पहले की तारीख से लागू हो सकता है (III सही)। यह मौलिक अधिकार नहीं छीन सकता (II गलत)। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 32
Question: Consider the following pairs: I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks. II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment. III. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All the three, (d) None
Explanation (English): Arunachal’s capital (Itanagar) isn’t named after a fort, so I is wrong. Nagaland was formed by a law, not an amendment (II is wrong). Tripura’s history is correct (III is right). Only one is correct. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): अरुणाचल की राजधानी (इटानगर) किले के नाम पर नहीं है, इसलिए I गलत। नगालैंड कानून से बना, संशोधन से नहीं (II गलत)। त्रिपुरा का इतिहास सही है (III सही)। सिर्फ एक सही है। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 33
Question: With reference to India, consider the following: I. Zonal Councils, II. The Inter-State Council, III. The National Security Council. How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All the three, (d) None
Explanation (English): Zonal Councils and Inter-State Council are in the Constitution to help states work together. The National Security Council is not in the Constitution. Two are correct. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): जोनल काउंसिल और इंटर-स्टेट काउंसिल संविधान में हैं ताकि राज्य मिलकर काम करें। नेशनल सिक्योरिटी काउंसिल संविधान में नहीं है। दो सही हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 34
Question: Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English): The Constitution says Governors can sometimes decide on their own (I is correct). The President can’t reserve a state bill without the Governor sending it (II is wrong). The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): संविधान कहता है कि गवर्नर कुछ मामलों में अपने विवेक से फैसला ले सकते हैं (I सही)। राष्ट्रपति बिना गवर्नर के भेजे राज्य बिल रोक नहीं सकते (II गलत)। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 35
Question: Consider the following pairs: I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of State Policy. II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties. III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights.
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All the three, (d) None
Explanation (English): Separating judiciary and executive is a Directive Principle (I is correct). Preserving culture is a Fundamental Duty (II is correct). Child labor ban is a Directive Principle, not a Fundamental Right (III is wrong). Two are correct. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): न्यायपालिका और कार्यपालिका को अलग करना नीति निर्देशक सिद्धांत है (I सही)। संस्कृति संरक्षण मौलिक कर्तव्य है (II सही)। बाल श्रम रोकना नीति सिद्धांत है, मौलिक अधिकार नहीं (III गलत)। दो सही हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 36
Question: Consider the following statements: I. With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and local body assumes total administration. II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English): In Scheduled Areas, states still have power, not local bodies, so I is wrong. The Centre can take over if the Governor suggests, so II is correct. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): शेड्यूल्ड क्षेत्रों में राज्य का अधिकार रहता है, स्थानीय निकाय पूरा नियंत्रण नहीं लेते, इसलिए I गलत। केंद्र गवर्नर की सलाह पर नियंत्रण ले सकता है, इसलिए II सही। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 37
Question: With reference to India, consider the following pairs: I. The National Automotive Board: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. II. The Coir Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries. III. The National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All the three, (d) None
Explanation (English): The National Automotive Board is under Heavy Industries, Coir Board under MSME, and Trade Information under Commerce. None of the pairs match correctly. The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): नेशनल ऑटोमोटिव बोर्ड भारी उद्योग, कोयर बोर्ड MSME, और ट्रेड इन्फॉर्मेशन वाणिज्य मंत्रालय के अधीन हैं। कोई जोड़ा सही नहीं है। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 38
Question: Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule. II. Extent of the executive power of a State. III. Conditions of the Governor’s office. For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Options:
(a) I and II only,
(b) II and III only,
(c) I and III only,
(d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): Changing the Union List, state powers, or Governor’s conditions affects states, so at least half the states must agree to these amendments. All three need ratification.
The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): यूनियन लिस्ट, राज्य की शक्तियों, या गवर्नर की शर्तों में बदलाव राज्यों को प्रभावित करता है, इसलिए आधे राज्यों की सहमति चाहिए। तीनों के लिए जरूरी है। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 39
Question: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): Governors can’t be questioned in court for their duties (I is correct), can’t face criminal cases during their term (II is correct), and MLAs are protected for what they say in the legislature (III is correct). All are correct. The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): गवर्नर के कर्तव्यों पर कोर्ट में सवाल नहीं उठ सकता (I सही), उनके कार्यकाल में आपराधिक मुकदमा नहीं हो सकता (II सही), और विधायक सदन में बोली बातों के लिए सुरक्षित हैं (III सही)। सभी सही हैं। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 40
Question: Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil. II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum. III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products. IV. Production of natural gas. How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) Only three, (d) All the four
Explanation (English): The PNGRB controls refining, storage, distribution, marketing, and natural gas production, but not crude oil production. Three activities are regulated. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): PNGRB रिफाइनिंग, स्टोरेज, वितरण, मार्केटिंग, और प्राकृतिक गैस उत्पादन को नियंत्रित करता है, लेकिन कच्चे तेल के उत्पादन को नहीं। तीन गतिविधियां नियंत्रित हैं। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 41
Question: Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Options:
(a) I and II only,
(b) II and III only,
(c) I and III only,
(d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): Intermediate panchayats exist in states (I is correct). The minimum age is 21, not 30 (II is wrong). The Governor, not the CM, sets up the finance commission (III is wrong).
Only I is correct. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): मध्य स्तर की पंचायतें राज्यों में हैं (I सही)। न्यूनतम उम्र 21 है, 30 नहीं (II गलत)। गवर्नर, न कि CM, वित्त आयोग बनाता है (III गलत)। सिर्फ I सही है। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 42
Question: Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC: I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1997. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is being led by India.
Options: (a) I and II, (b) I and IV, (c) II and III, (d) I only
Explanation (English): BIMSTEC has seven members (I is correct). It started in 1997, but not with the Dhaka Declaration (II is wrong). Nepal joined later, not a founder (III is wrong). India leads tourism (IV is correct). I and IV are correct. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): BIMSTEC में सात सदस्य हैं (I सही)। यह 1997 में शुरू हुआ, लेकिन ढाका डिक्लेरेशन से नहीं (II गलत)। नेपाल बाद में शामिल हुआ, संस्थापक नहीं (III गलत)। भारत पर्यटन का नेतृत्व करता है (IV सही)। I और IV सही हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 43
Question: Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of Gandhi Peace Prize? I. The President of India, II. The Prime Minister of India, III. The Chief Justice of India, IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
Options: (a) I, II and III, (b) I and III only, (c) II, III and IV, (d) I and II only
Explanation (English): The Gandhi Peace Prize jury includes the Prime Minister, Chief Justice, and Leader of Opposition, but not the President. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): गांधी शांति पुरस्कार की जूरी में प्रधानमंत्री, मुख्य न्यायाधीश, और विपक्षी नेता शामिल हैं, लेकिन राष्ट्रपति नहीं। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 44
Question:
GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Options:
(a) I, II and III,
(b) II and III only,
(c) I only, (d) I and II only
Explanation (English): GAGAN helps planes navigate accurately (I is correct) and improves air traffic control (II is correct). It also helps ships and railways, so III is wrong.
The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): GAGAN हवाई जहाजों को सटीक नेविगेशन देता है (I सही) और हवाई यातायात नियंत्रण बेहतर करता है (II सही)। यह जहाजों और रेलवे को भी मदद करता है, इसलिए III गलत। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 45
Question:
Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English): India co-chaired the AI Summit in Paris, building on earlier summits (I is correct). The US and UK signed the AI declaration (II is correct).
Both are correct.
The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): भारत ने पेरिस में AI समिट की सह-अध्यक्षता की, जो पहले के समिट पर आधारित था (I सही)। अमेरिका और ब्रिटेन ने AI घोषणा पर हस्ताक्षर किए (II सही)। दोनों सही हैं। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 46
Question:
Consider the following pairs:
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer: 2026,
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism: 2027,
III. International Year of Peace and Trust: 2025,
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence: 2029.
Options:
(a) Only one,
(b) Only two,
(c) Only three,
(d) All the four
Explanation (English): Only 2026 is set as the International Year of the Woman Farmer. The other years don’t match their themes. One pair is correct. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): सिर्फ 2026 को महिला किसान का अंतरराष्ट्रीय वर्ष घोषित किया गया है। बाकी साल अपने थीम से मेल नहीं खाते। एक जोड़ा सही है। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 47
Question:
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.
Options:
(a) I and II,
(b) II and III,
(c) I and III,
(d) I only
Explanation (English): The 16th BRICS Summit was in Kazan, Russia (I is correct) with the given theme (III is correct). Indonesia is not a full BRICS member (II is wrong). The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): 16वां BRICS समिट रूस के कजान में हुआ (I सही) और इसका थीम दिया गया था (III सही)। इंडोनेशिया BRICS का पूर्ण सदस्य नहीं है (II गलत)। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 48
Question: Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Options:
(a) None of the above statements is correct,
(b) II and III,
(c) I and IV,
(d) I only
Explanation (English): Lokpal checks corruption for all Indian public servants, even abroad (I is wrong). The Chairperson can be a judge, not just CJI, and MPs can’t be members (II is wrong). There’s no age limit (III is wrong). Lokpal can investigate a PM under conditions (IV is wrong). None are correct. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): लोकपाल सभी भारतीय लोक सेवकों, विदेश में भी, की जांच करता है (I गलत)। चेयरपर्सन जज हो सकता है, सिर्फ CJI नहीं, और सांसद नहीं हो सकते (II गलत)। उम्र की सीमा नहीं है (III गलत)। लोकपाल PM की जांच कर सकता है (IV गलत)। कोई सही नहीं। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 49
Question: Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup: I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in Women category.
Options: (a) I only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and II only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): The first Kho Kho World Cup was in Delhi, and India’s men and women teams won against Nepal with the given scores. All statements are correct. The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): पहला खो-खो विश्व कप दिल्ली में हुआ, और भारत की पुरुष और महिला टीमों ने नेपाल को दिए गए स्कोर से हराया। सभी बयान सही हैं। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 50
Question: Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Options:
(a) I only,
(b) II only,
(c) Both I and II,
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English): Gukesh won the World Chess Championship in 2024, not the Olympiad, so I is wrong. Abhimanyu Mishra is the youngest Grandmaster, so II is correct. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): गुकेश ने 2024 में विश्व चैंपियनशिप जीती, ओलंपियाड नहीं, इसलिए I गलत। अभिमन्यु मिश्रा सबसे कम उम्र के ग्रैंडमास्टर हैं, इसलिए II सही। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 51
Question: With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds, II. Hedge Funds, III. Stocks, IV. Venture Capital. How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) Only three, (d) All the four
Explanation (English): Alternative Investment Funds are special investments like Hedge Funds and Venture Capital, but Bonds and Stocks are common investments. Two are correct. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): वैकल्पिक निवेश फंड खास निवेश हैं जैसे हेज फंड और वेंचर कैपिटल, लेकिन बॉन्ड और स्टॉक सामान्य हैं। दो सही हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 52
Question: Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds, II. Buying and selling foreign currency, III. Pension fund management, IV. Lending to private companies, V. Printing and distributing currency notes.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II, III and IV, (c) I, II, IV and V, (d) I, II and V
Explanation (English): RBI earns money by trading government bonds and foreign currency (I and II are correct). It doesn’t manage pensions, lend to private companies, or earn from printing money (III, IV, V are wrong). The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): RBI सरकारी बॉन्ड और विदेशी मुद्रा खरीद-बिक्री से कमाता है (I और II सही)। यह पेंशन, निजी कंपनियों को कर्ज, या नोट छापने से नहीं कमाता (III, IV, V गलत)। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 53
Question:
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
I. Directorate of Enforcement: Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, It works under Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence: Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management: Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders, Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs.
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All the three, (d) None
Explanation (English): Enforcement Directorate and Revenue Intelligence are under the Finance Ministry (I and II are correct). Data Management is also under Finance, not Home Affairs (III is wrong). Two are correct.
The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): प्रवर्तन निदेशालय और राजस्व खुफिया वित्त मंत्रालय के अधीन हैं (I और II सही)। डेटा प्रबंधन भी वित्त मंत्रालय में है, गृह मंत्रालय में नहीं (III गलत)। दो सही हैं। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 54
Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Options:
(a) I only,
(b) II only,
(c) Both I and II,
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation (English): SEBI, not RBI, asks companies to submit BRSR, so I is wrong. BRSR reports focus on non-financial things like environment and social impact, so II is correct. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): SEBI, न कि RBI, कंपनियों से BRSR मांगता है, इसलिए I गलत। BRSR में गैर-वित्तीय चीजें जैसे पर्यावरण और सामाजिक प्रभाव होते हैं, इसलिए II सही। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 55
Question:
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Options:
(a) Both I and II correct and II explains I,
(b) Both I and II correct but II does not explain I,
(c) I correct but II not correct,
(d) I not correct but II correct
Explanation (English): Income from poultry and wool in rural areas is tax-free (I is correct). Rural agricultural land isn’t a capital asset for tax purposes (II is correct). But II doesn’t explain I. The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में मुर्गी पालन और ऊन से आय कर-मुक्त है (I सही)। ग्रामीण कृषि भूमि कर के लिए पूंजीगत संपत्ति नहीं है (II सही)। लेकिन II, I को नहीं समझाता। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 56
Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Options:
(a) I and II only,
(b) II and III only,
(c) I and III only,
(d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (I is correct). It doesn’t have all 30 critical minerals (II is wrong). The 2023 amendment allows the Centre to auction critical minerals (III is correct)
. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): भारत मिनरल्स सिक्योरिटी पार्टनरशिप में शामिल हुआ (I सही)। इसके पास सभी 30 महत्वपूर्ण खनिज नहीं हैं (II गलत)। 2023 में कानून बदला गया ताकि केंद्र महत्वपूर्ण खनिजों की नीलामी कर सके (III सही)। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 57
Question: Consider the following statements: Statement I: As regards investment in a company, bondholders are, generally, considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Options: (a) Both II and III correct and both explain I, (b) Both I and II correct and I explains II, (c) Only one of II and III correct and explains I, (d) Neither II nor III correct
Explanation (English): Bondholders lend money and get paid first, so they’re safer (II and III are correct). This explains why they’re at lower risk than stockholders (I). The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): बॉन्डहोल्डर कर्ज देते हैं और पहले भुगतान पाते हैं, इसलिए सुरक्षित हैं (II और III सही)। यह बताता है कि वे स्टॉकहोल्डर्स से कम जोखिम में हैं (I)। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 58
Question: Consider the following statements: I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): India trades a lot of equity options (I is correct) and its stock market grew bigger than Hong Kong’s (II is correct). SEBI warns investors and regulates advisors, so III is wrong. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): भारत में बहुत सारे इक्विटी ऑप्शन ट्रेड होते हैं (I सही) और इसका स्टॉक मार्केट हॉन्गकॉन्ग से बड़ा हुआ (II सही)। SEBI निवेशकों को चेतावनी देता और सलाहकारों को नियंत्रित करता है, इसलिए III गलत। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 59
Question: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Circular economy reduces emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Options: (a) Both II and III correct and both explain I, (b) Both II and III correct but only one explains I, (c) Only one of II and III correct and explains I, (d) Neither II nor III correct
Explanation (English): A circular economy reuses materials and reduces waste (II and III are correct). This cuts down greenhouse gases (I is correct). II and III explain I. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): सर्कुलर इकोनॉमी सामग्री का पुन: उपयोग और कचरा कम करती है (II और III सही)। इससे ग्रीनहाउस गैसें कम होती हैं (I सही)। II और III, I को समझाते हैं। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 60
Question: Consider the following statements: I. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. II. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. III. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): Borrowings and selling assets (disinvestment) are capital receipts (I is correct). Interest received is income, not a liability (II is wrong). Capital receipts create debt or reduce assets (III is correct). The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): उधार और संपत्ति बिक्री (विनिवेश) पूंजीगत प्राप्तियां हैं (I सही)। ब्याज से आय होती है, कर्ज नहीं (II गलत)। पूंजीगत प्राप्तियां कर्ज बनाती या संपत्ति कम करती हैं (III सही)। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 61
Question: Consider the following countries: I. Austria, II. Bulgaria, III. Croatia, IV. Serbia, V. Sweden, VI. North Macedonia. How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
Options: (a) Only three, (b) Only four, (c) Only five, (d) All the six
Explanation (English): NATO is a military group. Austria, Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia are members, but Serbia is not. Five countries are in NATO. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): NATO एक सैन्य समूह है। ऑस्ट्रिया, बुल्गारिया, क्रोएशिया, स्वीडन, और नॉर्थ मैसेडोनिया इसके सदस्य हैं, लेकिन सर्बिया नहीं। पांच देश NATO में हैं। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 62
Question: Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia, II. Brazil, III. Colombia, IV. Ecuador, V. Paraguay, VI. Venezuela. Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
Options: (a) Only two, (b) Only three, (c) Only four, (d) Only five
Explanation (English): The Andes are a big mountain range in South America. They pass through Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela, but not Brazil or Paraguay. Four countries. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): एंडीज दक्षिण अमेरिका का बड़ा पर्वत है। यह बोलीविया, कोलंबिया, इक्वाडोर, और वेनेजुएला से होकर गुजरता है, लेकिन ब्राजील और पराग्वे से नहीं। चार देश। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 63
Question: Consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika,
II. Lake Tonlé Sap,
III. Patos Lagoon.
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
Options:
(a) Only one,
(b) Only two,
(c) All the three,
(d) None
Explanation (English): The equator is an imaginary line around the Earth. Lake Tanganyika is near it, but Tonlé Sap and Patos Lagoon are far away. Only one is correct. The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): भूमध्य रेखा पृथ्वी के चारों ओर एक काल्पनिक रेखा है। तांगानिका झील इसके पास है, लेकिन टॉन्ले सैप और पाटोस लैगून दूर हैं। सिर्फ एक सही है। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 64
Question: Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Options:
(a) I and II only,
(b) II and III only,
(c) I and III only,
(d) I, II and III
Explanation (English): India grows and exports the most turmeric (I is correct). It has over 30 types of turmeric (II is correct). The listed states are big producers (III is correct). All are correct.
The correct option is (d).
Explanation (Hindi): भारत सबसे ज्यादा हल्दी पैदा और निर्यात करता है (I सही)। भारत में 30 से ज्यादा हल्दी की किस्में हैं (II सही)। बताए गए राज्य बड़े उत्पादक हैं (III सही)। सभी सही हैं। सही जवाब है (d)।
Q.no. 65
Question:
Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses in the Southern Hemisphere.
Options:
(a) I and II only,
(b) I and III only,
(c) I, II and III,
(d) II and III only
Explanation (English): Continental drift means continents moved apart. Matching rocks in Brazil and Africa, gold deposits linking Ghana and Brazil, and Gondwana sediments in India and other places prove this. All are correct. The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): महाद्वीपों का खिसकना यानी महाद्वीप अलग हुए। ब्राजील और अफ्रीका की चट्टानें, घाना और ब्राजील के सोने, और भारत के गोंडवाना तलछट अन्य जगहों से मिलते हैं। सभी सही हैं। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 66
Question: Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Options:
(a) Both I and II correct and II explains I,
(b) Both I and II correct but II does not explain I,
(c) I correct but II not correct,
(d) I not correct but II correct
Explanation (English): Subtropical and temperate areas have more dust because of dry winds (I is correct). But they don’t have less dry winds; they have more, so II is wrong.
The correct option is (c).
Explanation (Hindi): उपोष्ण और समशीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों में सूखी हवाओं की वजह से ज्यादा धूल है (I सही)। लेकिन इनमें सूखी हवाएं कम नहीं, ज्यादा हैं, इसलिए II गलत। सही जवाब है (c)।
Q.no. 67
Question:
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Options:
(a) Both I and II correct and II explains I,
(b) Both I and II correct but II does not explain I,
(c) I correct but II not correct,
(d) I not correct but II correct
Explanation (English): In January, oceans are warmer than land in the Northern Hemisphere (II is correct). This makes temperature lines (isotherms) bend toward the equator over land and poles over oceans (I is correct, and II explains it).
The correct option is (a).
Explanation (Hindi): जनवरी में उत्तरी गोलार्ध में समुद्र जमीन से गर्म होते हैं (II सही)। इससे तापमान रेखाएं (आइसोथर्म्स) जमीन पर भूमध्य की ओर और समुद्र पर ध्रुवों की ओर मुड़ती हैं (I सही, और II इसे समझाता है)। सही जवाब है (a)।
Q.no. 68
Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Options:
(a) Both II and III correct and both explain I,
(b) Both II and III correct but only one explains I,
(c) Only one of II and III correct and explains I,
(d) Neither II nor III correct
Explanation (English): Chalk lets water pass through because it’s porous (I and II are correct). Clay is less permeable but not completely non-porous (III is wrong). II explains I.
The correct option is (b).
Explanation (Hindi): चॉक पानी को गुजरने देता है क्योंकि यह छिद्रपूर्ण है (I और II सही)। मिट्टी कम पारगम्य है लेकिन पूरी तरह छिद्रहीन नहीं (III गलत)। II, I को समझाता है। सही जवाब है (b)।
Q.no. 69
Question No. 69
Question: The ‘Fiscal Deficit’ is the difference between
Options:
(a) Revenue and expenditure,
(b) Exports and imports,
(c) Savings and loans,
(d) Taxes and subsidies
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation (English): Fiscal deficit is when the government spends more money than it earns, so it borrows.
Explanation (Hindi): राजकोषीय घाटा तब होता है जब सरकार अपनी कमाई से ज्यादा खर्च करती है और उधार लेती है।
Subject: Economy
Topic: Public Finance, Fiscal Policy
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study budget terms, monetary policy, and economic indicators. Use Economic Survey and Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh.
Question No. 70
Question:
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Options:
(a) I only,
(b) II only,
(c) Both I and II,
(d) Neither I nor II
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): The Rashtriya Gokul Mission helps poor farmers by improving their low-yield cows and buffaloes. It also uses science to protect and breed these animals better.
Explanation (Hindi): राष्ट्रीय गोकुल मिशन गरीब किसानों की मदद करता है जिनके पास कम दूध देने वाली गाय-भैंस हैं। यह वैज्ञानिक तरीके से इनके संरक्षण और प्रजनन में भी मदद करता है।
Subject: Economy
Topic: Government Schemes, Agriculture
Additional Topics: for UPSC 2026: Study livestock policies, dairy development, and rural schemes. Use PIB and India Year Book.
Question No. 71
Question: Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Options: (a) I only, (b) only, II only (c) Both I and IIII, (d) Neither I nor IIII
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Raja Ram Mohan Roy respected Indian traditions like the Vedas and wanted people to use science, and believed in equality for all.
Explanation (Hindi): राजा राम मोहन राय वेदों का सम्मान करते थे और चाहते थे कि लोग लोग विजान, तर्क और सभी की समानता में विश्वास करें।
Subject: History
Topic: Modern Indian History, Social Reformers
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study other reformers (Phule, Ambedkar), Brahmo Samaj, and social change. Use Modern India by Spectrum.
Question No. 72
Question: Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth, II. Observance of strict non-violence. Retention III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public, IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes.
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) Only three, (d) All the four
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): The Non-Cooperation Movement asked people to boycott British courts and clothes, follow non-violence, and set up panchayats. Keeping titles wasn’t part wasn’t it.
Explanation (Hindi): असहयोग आंदोलन में अंग्रेीज़ी को कोर्ट और कपड़ों का बहिष्कार करने, अहिंसा करने और पंचायतें बनाने को कहा गया। खिताब रखना इसका हिस्सा नहीं था।
Subject: History
Topic: Modern Indian History, Freedom Struggle
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study Non-Cooperation movement details, boycotts, and freedom struggle strategies. Use India’s for Struggle* by Independence* by Chandra.
Question No. 73
Question: The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was
Options: (a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley, (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes, (c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks, (d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): Araghatta is a big wheel with pots tied to it, used to lift water from wells for farming. It’s called a Persian wheel.
Explanation (Hindi): अराघट्टा एक बड़ा पहिया है जिसके किनारों पर मटके बंधे हैं, जो कुएं से पानी निकालता है। इसे पर्शियन व्हील कहते हैं।
Subject: History & Technology
Topic: Ancient Indian Technology, Irrigation
Additional Topics for UPSC:2026: Study ancient Indian science, agricultural tools, and water management. Use Ancient India by R.S. Sharma.
Question No. 74
Question: Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Vichitrachitta’, ‘Mattavilasa’, and ‘Gunabhara’?
Options: (a) Mahendravarman, I, (b) Simhavishnu, (c) Narasimhavarman I, (d) Simhavarman
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation (English): Mahendravarman I, a Pallava king, used these titles to show his unique personality and achievements.
Explanation (Hindi): महेंद्रवर्मन I, एक पल्लव राजा, ने ये खिताब लिए थे जो उनकी अनोखी शख्सियत दिखाते हैं।
Subject: History
Topic: Ancient Indian History, Pallava Dynasty
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study South Indian dynasties, their rulers, and cultural contributions. Use Tamil Nadu Class 11 History.
Question No. 75
Question: Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
Options: (a) Samudragupta II, (b) Chandragupta III, (c) Kumaragupta, I, (d) Skandagupta
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): Fa-hien, a Chinese monk, came to India around 405-411 CE to study Buddhism during Chandragupta II’s rule.
Explanation (Hindi): फा-हियन, एक चीनी भिक्षु, 405-411 ईस्वी में बौद्ध धर्म सीखने भारत आया, जब चंद्रगुप्त II का शासन था।
Subject: History
Topic: Ancient Indian History, Gupta Period
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study Gupta period, foreign travelers (Xuanzang), and cultural achievements. Use Ancient India by Upinder Singh.
Question No. 76
Question: Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
Options: (a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta), (b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya), (c) Rajendra I (Chola), (d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Rajendra Chola I sent a navy to attack Srivijaya in the 11th century to control trade routes.
Explanation (Hindi): राजेंद्र चोल I ने 11वीं सदी में श्रीविजय पर नौसेना भेजी ताकि व्यापार मार्ग नियंत्रित हों।
Subject: History
Topic: Medieval Indian History, Chola Dynasty
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study Chola administration, naval power, and maritime trade. Use Medieval India by Satish Chandra.
Question No. 77
Question: With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs: I. Asmaka: Godavari, II. Kamboja: Vipas, III. Avanti: Mahanadi, IV. Kosala: Sarayu.
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) Only three, (d) All the four
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): Asmaka was near Godavari and Kosala near Sarayu, so I and IV are correct. Kamboja was near Indus, not Vipas, and Avanti was near Narmada, not Mahanadi. Two are correct.
Explanation (Hindi): अस्मक गोदावरी और कोसल सरयू के पास थे, इसलिए I और IV सही। कम्बोज सिंधु के पास था, विपास नहीं, और अवंती नर्मदा के पास, महानदी नहीं। दो सही हैं।
Subject: History
Topic: Ancient Indian History, Geography of Kingdoms
Additional Topics for UPSC:2026: Study ancient Indian kingdoms, their geographical locations, and trade routes. Use Ancient India by R.S. Sharma.
Question No. 78
Question: The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
Options: (a) Delhi, (b) Gwalior, (c) Ujjain, (d) Lahore
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation (English): Vishnu Digambar Paluskar started a music school in Lahore in 1901 to teach Indian classical music.
Explanation (Hindi): विष्णु दिगंबर पलुस्कर ने 1901 में लाहौर में गंधर्व महाविद्यालय शुरू किया ताकि भारतीय शास्त्रिय संगीत सिखाया जाए।
Subject: History
Topic: Art & Culture, Modern Indian Music
Additional Topics for UPSC:2026: Study cultural institutions, Indian music history, and reformers. Use Indian Art by Culture & by Culture* by Nitin Singhania.
Question No. 79
Question: Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajika’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the
Options: (a) Village-level administration, (b) district-level administration, (c) provincial-level administration, (d) level of the central administration
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): In Ashoka’s empire, Pradeshika, Rajika, Rajuka and Yukta managed districts, not villages or provinces.
Explanation (Hindi): अशोक के साम्राज्य में प्रादेशिक, राजक और युक्त जिला स्तर के अधिकारी थे, न कि गांव या प्रांत के।
Subject: History
Topic: Ancient Indian History, Mauryan Administration
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study Mauryan governance, inscriptions, and administration. Use Ancient India by Upinder Singh.
Question No. 80
Question: Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement: I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if Swaraj did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): The Non-Cooperation Movement aimed for Swaraj peacefully. It planned civil disobedience later if Swaraj wasn’t achieved and the British were harsh.
Explanation (Hindi): असहयोग आंदोलन का लक्ष्य शांतिपूर्ण स्वराज था। अगर स्वराज नहीं मिला और अंग्रेज सख्ती करें तो बाद में सविनय अवज्ञा की योजना थी।
Subject: History
Topic: Modern Indian History, Freedom Struggle
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study Congress movements, Swaraj concept, and British responses. Use India’s Struggle for Independence by Bipan Chandra.
Question No. 81
Question: Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles, II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles, III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles. How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All the three, (d) None
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Electric, hydrogen, and hybrid vehicles all use systems different from petrol engines, so they’re alternative powertrains.
Explanation (Hindi): इलेक्ट्रिक, हाइड्रोजन, और हाइब्रिड वाहन पेट्रोल इंजन से अलग सिस्टम इस्तेमाल करते हैं, इसलिए ये वैकल्पिक पावरट्रेन हैं।
Subject: Science & Technology
Topic: Green Technology, EVs
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study green vehicles, battery tech, and renewable energy. Use Science Reporter.
Question No. 82
Question: With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All three, (d) None
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation (English): Not all drones can land vertically, hover automatically, or run only on batteries—some use fuel or need manual control.
Explanation (Hindi): सभी ड्रोन सीधे नीचे नहीं उतर सकते, अपने आप हवा में नहीं रुक सकते, या सिर्फ बैटरी पर नहीं चलते—कुछ में ईंधन होता है।
Subject: Science & Technology
Topic: Defence Technology, Drones
Additional Topics for UPSC:2026: Study drone applications, military tech, and UAV policies. Use DRDO reports and India Year Book.
Question No. 83
Question: In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt, II. Graphite, III. Lithium, IV. Nickel. How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) Only three, (d) All four
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Cobalt, lithium, and nickel are used in the positive part (cathode) of EV batteries. Graphite is used in the negative part (anode).
Explanation (Hindi): कोबाल्ट, लिथियम, और निकल EV बैटरी के पॉजिटिव हिस्से (कैथोड) में हैं। ग्रेफाइट नेगेटिव हिस्से (एनोड) में होता है।
Subject: Science & Technology
Topic: Battery Chemistry, EVs
Additional Topics for UPSC:2026: Study critical minerals, battery recycling, and EV policies. Use NCERT Chemistry and current affairs.
Question No. 84
Question: Consider the following: I. Eyeglass lenses, II. Car tyres, III. Cigarette butts. How many of them contain plastic?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All three, (d) None
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Eyeglass lenses use plastic (polycarbonate), car tyres have synthetic rubber (plastic), and cigarette butts have plastic filters.
Explanation (Hindi): चश्मे के लेंस में प्लास्टिक, कार टायर में कृत्रिम रबर (प्लास्टिक), और सिगरेट में प्लास्टिक फिल्टर होता है।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Plastic Pollution
Additional Topics for UPSC:2026: Study plastic waste, single-use plastics, and pollution control. Use Environment by Shankar IAS.
Question No. 85
Question: Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol, II. Nitroglycerine, III. Urea. Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All three, (d) None
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): Coal gasification makes ethanol (fuel) and urea (fertilizer), but nitroglycerine (explosive) is made differently.
Explanation (Hindi): कोल गैसीकरण से इथेनॉल (ईंध
continue
Question No. 85 (Continued)
Question: Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol, II. Nitroglycerine, III. Urea. Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All three, (d) None
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): Coal gasification makes ethanol (fuel) and urea (fertilizer), but nitroglycerine (explosive) is made differently.
Explanation (Hindi): कोल गैसीकरण से इथेनॉल (ईंधन) और यूरिया (खाद) बनते हैं, लेकिन नाइट्रोग्लिसरीन (विस्फोटक) अलग तरीके से बनता है।
Subject: Science & Technology
Topic: Industrial Technology, Coal Gasification
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study coal-based technologies, renewable energy alternatives, and fertilizer production. Use Economic Survey and Science Reporter.
Question No. 86
Question: Consider the following: I. CL-20, II. HMX, III. LLM-105. How many of the above are used as military explosives?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All three, (d) None
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all powerful explosives used in military weapons like bombs and missiles.
Explanation (Hindi): CL-20, HMX, और LLM-105 सभी शक्तिशाली विस्फोटक हैं, जो बम और मिसाइल जैसे सैन्य हथियारों में इस्तेमाल होते हैं।
Subject: Science & Technology
Topic: Defense Technology, Explosives
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study military technology, DRDO projects, and chemical explosives. Use DRDO updates and India Year Book.
Question No. 87
Question: Consider the following statements: I. Majorana chip is associated with quantum computing. II. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. III. AWS is a deep learning model. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II, and III
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation (English): Majorana chips help in quantum computing, and deep learning is part of machine learning. AWS is a cloud service, not a deep learning model.
Explanation (Hindi): मेजोराना चिप क्वांटम कंप्यूटिंग से जुड़ी है, और डीप लर्निंग मशीन लर्निंग का हिस्सा है। AWS एक क्लाउड सेवा है, डीप लर्निंग मॉडल नहीं।
Subject: Science & Technology
Topic: Emerging Technology, AI and Quantum Computing
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study AI applications, quantum computing advancements, and cloud technology. Use Science Reporter and current affairs.
Question No. 88
Question: Consider the following statements about monoclonal antibodies: I. They are used for treatment of certain viral diseases like Nipah. II. They are produced from a single clone of cells. III. They can be used for targeted drug delivery. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II, and III
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation (English): Monoclonal antibodies treat diseases like Nipah, are made from one cell type, and can deliver drugs to specific areas in the body.
Explanation (Hindi): मोनोक्लोनल एंटीबॉडी निपाह जैसे रोगों का इलाज करते हैं, एक कोशिका से बनते हैं, और दवाओं को सटीक जगह तक पहुंचाते हैं।
Subject: Science & Technology
Topic: Biotechnology, Medical Science
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study biotechnology, vaccine development, and health innovations. Use NCERT Biology and health news.
Question No. 89
Question: Consider the following statements about viruses: I. No virus can infect bacteria. II. Viruses cannot reproduce outside a living cell. III. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA but not both. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) I and II only, (b) II and III only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II, and III
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): Viruses need living cells to reproduce, and they have either DNA or RNA, not both. But some viruses, like bacteriophages, can infect bacteria, so I is wrong.
Explanation (Hindi): वायरस को जीवित कोशिका की जरूरत होती है बढ़ने के लिए, और उनके पास DNA या RNA में से एक होता है, दोनों नहीं। लेकिन कुछ वायरस बैक्टीरिया को संक्रमित करते हैं, इसलिए I गलत है।
Subject: Science & Technology
Topic: Biology, Virology
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study virology, bacteriophages, and viral diseases. Use NCERT Biology and Environment by Shankar IAS.
Question No. 90
Question: Consider the following statements about activated carbon: I. It is used in pollution control. II. It can be synthesized from waste materials like coconut shells. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Activated carbon cleans air and water by trapping pollutants and can be made from waste like coconut shells.
Explanation (Hindi): एक्टिवेटेड कार्बन हवा और पानी को प्रदूषण से साफ करता है और इसे नारियल के छिलकों जैसे कचरे से बनाया जा सकता है।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Environmental Technology, Pollution Control
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study pollution control methods, waste management, and green tech. Use Environment by Shankar IAS.
Question No. 91
Question: Which one of the following statements best explains why the cement industry contributes to CO2 emissions?
Options: (a) Limestone is converted to CaO releasing CO2, (b) Only fossil fuels are used, (c) High water usage, (d) Low recycling rates
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation (English): Making cement involves heating limestone, which releases CO2 gas, adding to global warming.
Explanation (Hindi): सीमेंट बनाने में चूना पत्थर को गर्म करते हैं, जिससे CO2 गैस निकलती है, जो ग्लोबल वार्मिंग बढ़ाती है।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Climate Change, Industrial Emissions
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study industrial pollution, CO2 sources, and mitigation strategies. Use Economic Survey and MoEFCC reports.
Question No. 92
Question: With reference to COP28, consider the following statements: I. India did not sign the Declaration on Climate and Health. II. The declaration is legally binding. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation (English): India didn’t sign the COP28 health declaration due to its own priorities. The declaration isn’t legally binding, so II is wrong.
Explanation (Hindi): भारत ने COP28 के जलवायु और स्वास्थ्य घोषणा पर हस्ताक्षर नहीं किए। यह घोषणा कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी नहीं है, इसलिए II गलत है।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Climate Change, International Agreements
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study COP outcomes, India’s climate stance, and non-binding agreements. Use The Hindu and UNFCCC updates.
Question No. 93
Question: Which one of the following is the most likely cause of the shift of the Earth’s rotational axis?
Options: (a) Solar flares, (b) Volcanic eruptions, (c) Melting of polar ice caps, (d) Tsunamis
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Melting polar ice changes Earth’s weight distribution, slightly shifting its spin axis.
Explanation (Hindi): ध्रुवीय बर्फ पिघलने से पृथ्वी का वजन बदलता है, जिससे उसका घूर्णन अक्ष थोड़ा हिलता है।
Subject: Geography
Topic: Physical Geography, Climate Change
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study climate impacts, geophysical changes, and polar regions. Use Certificate Physical and Human Geography by G.C. Leong.
Question No. 94
Question: With reference to Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, consider the following statements: I. It enables countries to voluntarily cooperate to achieve emission reduction targets. II. It promotes both market and non-market mechanisms for cooperation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Article 6 lets countries work together to cut emissions using carbon markets and other methods.
Explanation (Hindi): अनुच्छेद 6 देशों को उत्सर्जन कम करने के लिए कार्बन बाजार और अन्य तरीकों से सहयोग करने देता है।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Climate Change, Carbon Markets
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study Paris Agreement details, carbon trading, and climate finance. Use Environment by Shankar IAS.
Question No. 95
Question: The ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub’ was launched by
Options: (a) World Bank, (b) Asian Development Bank, (c) IMF, (d) UNEP
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): The Asian Development Bank started this hub to fund nature-friendly projects in Asia.
Explanation (Hindi): एशियाई विकास बैंक ने यह हब शुरू किया ताकि एशिया में प्रकृति-अनुकूल परियोजनाओं को पैसा मिले।
Subject: Environment
Topic: International Organizations, Environmental Finance
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study green financing, ADB projects, and environmental initiatives. Use India Year Book and PIB.
Question No. 96
Question: Consider the following applications: I. Carbon sequestration, II. Fuel production, III. Plastic and food production. Direct Air Capture (DAC) technology can be used for how many of the above applications?
Options: (a) Only one, (b) Only two, (c) All three, (d) None
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): DAC captures CO2 from air for storage (sequestration) or to make fuel, but not for plastics or food.
Explanation (Hindi): DAC हवा से CO2 पकड़कर भंडारण (सीक्वेस्ट्रेशन) या ईंधन बनाने के लिए है, प्लास्टिक या भोजन के लिए नहीं।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Environmental Technology, Carbon Capture
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study carbon capture tech, CCS, and climate solutions. Use Science Reporter and MoEFCC reports.
Question No. 97
Question: With reference to the Peacock Tarantula, consider the following statements: I. It is a ground-dwelling spider. II. It is found in India’s Eastern Ghats forests. III. It is an omnivore crustacean.
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only one, (c) I and II only, (b) II only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II and III
Correct AnswerOption: (b)
Explanation (English): The Peacock Tarantula is a colorful spider found in India’s Eastern Ghats, living in trees, not on the ground. It’s not a crustacean or omnivore—it eats insects. So only II is correct.
Explanation (Hindi): पीकॉक टारेंटुला एक रंगीन मकड़ी है जो भारत के पूर्वी घाट में पेड़ों पर रहती है, जमीन पर नहीं। यह क्रस्टेशियन या सर्वाहारी नहीं, कीड़े खाती है। इसलिए केवल II सही है।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Biodiversity, Indian Wildlife
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study Indian biodiversity, endangered species, and Eastern Ghats’ ecosystems. Use IUCN Red List and Environment by Shankar IAS.
Question No. 98
Question: With reference to CO2 emissions in India, consider the following statements: I. India’s per capita CO2 emission is less than 0.5 tonnes annually. II. Electricity and heat production are the largest contributors to CO2 emissions in India.
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation (English): India’s per capita CO2 emission is about 2 tonnes, not 0.5, so I is wrong. Electricity and heat, from coal plants, are the biggest CO2 sources, so II is correct.
Explanation (Hindi): भारत का प्रति व्यक्ति CO2 उत्सर्जन लगभग 2 टन है, 0.5 नहीं, इसलिए I गलत। बिजली और ऊष्मा, कोयले से, सबसे ज्यादा CO2 बनाते हैं, इसलिए II सही।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Climate Change, Emissions
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study India’s emission trends, energy sectors, and climate commitments. Use Economic Survey and MoEFCC reports.
Question No. 99
Question: Consider the following plants/stems: I. Ginger: Rhizome, II. Papaya: Shrub, III. Malabar Spinach: Climber. Which of the above are correctly matched?
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) I and III only, (d) I, II, and III
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation (English): Ginger grows as a rhizome (underground stem), and Malabar Spinach is a climbing plant. Papaya is a tree, not a shrub, so II is wrong.
Explanation (Hindi): अदरक एक कंद (जमीन के नीचे तना) है, और मालाबार पालक एक बेल है। पपीता पेड़ है, झाड़ी नहीं, इसलिए II गलत है।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Botany, Plant Classification
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study plant types, agricultural crops, and ecological roles. Use NCERT Biology and Environment by Shankar IAS.
Question No. 100
Question: Consider the following statements: I. Oceans produce more oxygen than the world’s rainforests. II. The percentage of oxygen in water is higher than in air. Which of the statements is/are correct?
Options: (a) I only, (b) II only, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation (English): Oceans make more oxygen than rainforests because of phytoplankton, tiny plants in water. But water has less oxygen than air, so II is wrong.
Explanation (Hindi): समुद्र, फाइटोप्लांकटॉन की वजह से, जंगलों से ज्यादा ऑक्सीजन बनाते हैं। लेकिन पानी में हवा से कम ऑक्सीजन होती है, इसलिए II गलत।
Subject: Environment
Topic: Biogeochemical Cycles, Oxygen Production
Additional Topics for UPSC 2026: Study marine ecosystems, oxygen cycles, and environmental science basics. Use NCERT Biology and Environment by Shankar IAS.
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