General Instructions:

• The test consists of 150 questions.
• Each question carries 1 mark.
• There is no negative marking.
• The duration of the test is 2 hours.
• Select the most appropriate answer from the given options.

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General Science

1. Consider the following statements regarding quantum entanglement:
   1. It allows instantaneous correlation between particles regardless of distance.It violates the principle of locality in classical physics.It has applications in quantum computing and secure communication.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   a. 1 and 2 only
   b. 1 and 3 only
   c. 2 and 3 only
   d. 1, 2, and 3
   
2. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Scientific Concept)List-II (Associated Scientist)a. Theory of Relativity1. Niels Bohrb. Quantum Mechanics2. Albert Einsteinc. Uncertainty Principle3. Werner Heisenbergd. Atomic Model4. Erwin Schrödinger Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   A. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
   B. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
   C. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
   D. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
   
3. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Biomolecule)List-II (Function)a. DNA1. Energy storageb. RNA2. Genetic informationc. Protein3. Protein synthesisd. Lipid4. Catalysis and structure Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   A. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
   B. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
   C. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
   D. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
   
4. Assertion (A): Stem cells have the potential to differentiate into various cell types.
   Reason (R): They possess totipotency or pluripotency, enabling regenerative medicine applications. Select the correct answer:
   a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
   b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
   c. A is true, but R is false
   d. A is false, but R is true
5. With reference to nanotechnology, consider the following statements:
   1. It involves manipulation at the atomic or molecular scale.
   2. Carbon nanotubes exhibit exceptional strength and conductivity.
   3. It has no environmental risks associated with nanoparticle dispersion.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a. 1 only
   b. 1 and 2 only
   c. 2 and 3 only
   d. 1, 2, and 3
6. What is the primary mechanism behind the greenhouse effect?
   a. Absorption of ultraviolet radiation by ozone
   b. Trapping of infrared radiation by atmospheric gases
   c. Reflection of solar radiation by clouds
   d. Convection currents in the troposphere
7. Consider the following pairs:
   1. Higgs Boson : God Particle
   2. Neutrino : Ghost Particle
   3. Quark : Fundamental building block of protons
   4. Gluon : Carrier of electromagnetic force
   Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   a. 1 and 2 only
   b. 1, 2, and 3 only
   c. 3 and 4 only
   d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
8. In the context of biotechnology, which of the following best describes ‘golden rice’?
   a. Rice fortified with iron to combat anemia
   b. Genetically modified rice with beta-carotene for vitamin A
   c. Hybrid rice variety resistant to pests
   d. Organic rice cultivated without pesticides
9. What phenomenon explains the blue color of the sky?
   a. Rayleigh scattering
   b. Mie scattering
   c. Tyndall effect
   d. Raman scattering
10. Consider the following statements about superconductors:
    1. They exhibit zero electrical resistance below critical temperature.
    2. High-temperature superconductors operate above liquid nitrogen temperatures.
    3. Meissner effect causes magnetic field expulsion.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    a. 1 and 2 only
    b. 1 and 3 only
    c. 2 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
11. Which of the following materials is a semiconductor?
    a. Copper
    b. Silicon
    c. Glass
    d. Rubber
12. What is/are the full form(s) of PET in medical imaging?
    1. Positron Emission Tomography
    2. Polyethylene Terephthalate
    3. Photoelectric Effect Tomography
    4. Proton Emission Technique
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    a. 1 only
    b. 1 and 2
    c. 3 and 4
    d. 1, 2, and 3
13. What is the name of the ESA’s mission to study exoplanets?
    a. Kepler
    b. ARIEL
    c. Hubble
    d. James Webb
14. What was the primary objective of the Large Hadron Collider?
    a. Fusion energy
    b. Particle acceleration to discover new particles
    c. Climate modeling
    d. Genetic sequencing
15. For a convex mirror, the image is always:
    a. Real and inverted
    b. Virtual and erect
    c. Real and erect
    d. Virtual and inverted
16. A photodiode operates in:
    a. Forward bias
    b. Reverse bias
    c. No bias
    d. Alternating bias
17. The normality of a solution is:
    a. Moles per liter
    b. Equivalents per liter
    c. Grams per liter
    d. Percentage by weight
18. Toxoid vaccines are used against:
    a. Viral infections
    b. Bacterial toxins
    c. Fungal diseases
    d. Parasitic infections
19. Which is a superconductor at room temperature?
    a. Mercury
    b. None, as of 2025
    c. Graphene
    d. Diamond
20. The PCR technique is used for:
    a. DNA amplification
    b. Protein synthesis
    c. Cell culture
    d. Virus isolation
21. In vacuum, all objects fall with:
    a. Different speeds
    b. Same acceleration
    c. Zero gravity
    d. Increasing speed proportionally to mass
22. Conjugate vaccines are effective against:
    a. Polysaccharide antigens
    b. Protein antigens
    c. Lipid antigens
    d. Nucleic acid antigens
23. Mid-ocean ridges are sites of:
    a. Convergence
    b. Divergence
    c. Transform faults
    d. Subduction
24. Wilson’s theory of biogeography explains:
    a. Island species diversity
    b. Continental drift
    c. Climate zones
    d. Ocean currents
25. tRNA stands for:
    a. Transfer RNA
    b. Translational RNA
    c. Terminal RNA
    d. Template RNA
26. Faraday’s law relates to:
    a. Electromagnetic induction
    b. Capacitance
    c. Resistance
    d. Conductance
27. Surface tension is:
    a. Scalar
    b. Vector
    c. Force per unit length
    d. Pressure difference
28. Analgesics target:
    a. Pain receptors
    b. Inflammation
    c. Infection
    d. Fever
29. Enzyme kinetics follow:
    a. Michaelis-Menten equation
    b. Arrhenius equation
    c. Boyle’s law
    d. Charles’s law
30. The enteric nervous system is part of:
    a. Autonomic
    b. Central
    c. Somatic
    d. Peripheral

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Current Affairs

31. In the context of India’s space program, the Vyommitra mission is associated with:
    a. Human spaceflight
    b. Lunar exploration
    c. Satellite launch
    d. Mars orbiter
32. The International Court of Justice’s advisory opinion on climate change in 2025 was requested by:
    a. Vanuatu
    b. India
    c. USA
    d. China
33. Who is the current Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission as of July 2025?
    a. Justice Arun Mishra
    b. Justice H.L. Dattu
    c. Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
    d. Justice Bobde
34. The Global Innovation Index 2024 is published by:
    a. WIPO
    b. UNDP
    c. World Bank
    d. IMF
35. Which statement about the Union Budget 2025-26 is correct?
    a. Fiscal deficit targeted at 4.9%
    b. Increased allocation for defense
    c. New tax slab introduced
    d. All of the above
36. What was the theme of International Day of Yoga 2025?
    a. Yoga for Self and Society
    b. Yoga for Humanity
    c. Yoga for Well-being
    d. Yoga for Peace
37. The Chapchar Kut festival is celebrated in:
    a. Mizoram
    b. Nagaland
    c. Manipur
    d. Arunachal Pradesh
38. Consider the following statements about the Nobel Prize 2025:
39. Peace Prize to climate activists
40. Economics to inequality researchers
41. Literature to an Asian author

Which are plausible based on trends?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All

39. ‘Operation Ajay’ in 2025 was for:
    a. Evacuation from Sudan
    b. Disaster relief in Himalayas
    c. Anti-terror ops
    d. Vaccine distribution
40. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Summit)	List-II (Host)
a. SCO 2025	1. Kazakhstan
b. ASEAN 2025	2. Malaysia
c. BIMSTEC	3. Thailand
d. SAARC	4. Pakistan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
D. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

41. The Gaganyaan mission’s first uncrewed flight is scheduled for:
    a. 2025
    b. 2026
    c. 2024
    d. 2027
42. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Scheme)	List-II (Ministry)
a. PMJAY	1. Health
b. PMAY	2. Housing
c. PMKVY	3. Skill Development
d. PMFBY	4. Agriculture

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
D. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

43. The BRICS Summit 2025 was held in:
    a. Kazan, Russia
    b. Johannesburg
    c. New Delhi
    d. Beijing
44. Which pairs are correctly matched?
45. ICC T20 2024 Winner: South Africa
46. Wimbledon 2025 Women’s: Barbora Krejcikova
47. Asian Games 2026: Nagoya
48. Olympics 2024: Paris

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 4 only

45. The Socio-Economic Census in India was last conducted in:
    a. 2011
    b. 2021
    c. 2015
    d. Not conducted
46. Which state launched ‘Project Dolphin’ for conservation?
    a. Uttar Pradesh
    b. Bihar
    c. West Bengal
    d. Odisha
47. One-horned rhinos are protected in:
    a. Kaziranga
    b. Manas
    c. Both
    d. Neither
48. Which country backed India’s UNSC permanent seat bid in 2025?
    a. UK
    b. France
    c. Germany
    d. All G4
49. Who won the men’s singles at Australian Open 2025?
    a. Jannik Sinner
    b. Novak Djokovic
    c. Carlos Alcaraz
    d. Daniil Medvedev
50. NEP 2020 proposes a new structure of:
    a. 10+2
    b. 5+3+3+4
    c. 6+3+3+3
    d. 4+4+4+4
51. India-EU FTA negotiations status in 2025:
    a. Concluded
    b. Ongoing
    c. Stalled
    d. Withdrawn
52. The Telecommunication Act 2023 came into effect in:
    a. 2024
    b. 2023
    c. 2025
    d. 2022
53. Oldest cave paintings in India are at:
    a. Bhimbetka
    b. Ajanta
    c. Ellora
    d. Badami
54. The ‘Kunming-Montreal Framework’ is for:
    a. Biodiversity
    b. Climate
    c. Trade
    d. Space

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History

55. The Indus Valley Civilization’s economy was primarily:
    a. Agrarian
    b. Pastoral
    c. Industrial
    d. Maritime trade-based
56. Which Bihar site is associated with Ashoka’s edicts?
    a. Lauriya Nandangarh
    b. Bodh Gaya
    c. Nalanda
    d. Vikramshila
57. Emergency provisions were borrowed from:
    a. Germany
    b. USA
    c. UK
    d. Canada
58. Telangana was formed in:
    a. 2014
    b. 2013
    c. 2015
    d. 2012
59. The currency with highest denomination note is:
    a. Swiss Franc
    b. Singapore Dollar
    c. US Dollar
    d. Euro
60. Bihar’s ‘Bihar@2047’ vision is for:
    a. Development by 2047
    b. Independence centenary
    c. Both
    d. None
61. The ‘Warli’ painting is from:
    a. Maharashtra
    b. Bihar
    c. Odisha
    d. Rajasthan
62. Consider statements about Ujjain:
63. Ancient learning center
64. Vikramaditya’s capital

Which is correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. Neither

63. The Mughal administration system included:
64. Zabt revenue
65. Suba provinces
66. Jagirdari
67. All

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All

64. The ancient port Lothal was in:
    a. Gujarat
    b. Tamil Nadu
    c. Odisha
    d. Bengal
65. The ‘Triratnas’ are in:
    a. Jainism
    b. Buddhism
    c. Sikhism
    d. Hinduism
66. The Kailash Temple is at:
    a. Ellora
    b. Ajanta
    c. Khajuraho
    d. Konark
67. Consider statements:
68. Ibn Battuta visited during Muhammad Tughlaq
69. Marco Polo visited Pandya kingdom

Which is correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. Neither

68. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Battle)	List-II (Year)
a. Panipat I	1. 1526
b. Khanwa	2. 1527
c. Ghaghra	3. 1529
d. Chanderi	4. 1528

A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
C. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
D. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

69. Who founded the Khilji dynasty?
    a. Jalal-ud-din
    b. Alauddin
    c. Qutub-ud-din
    d. Balban
70. The Bhakti saint Kabir was follower of:
    a. Ramananda
    b. Nanak
    c. Chaitanya
    d. None
71. The Universities Act 1904 was under:
    a. Curzon
    b. Ripon
    c. Lytton
    d. Mayo
72. The ‘Tickathia’ system was in:
    a. Champaran
    b. Kheda
    c. Bardoli
    d. Ahmedabad
73. The Mauryan capital was shifted to Pataliputra by:
    a. Ashoka
    b. Chandragupta
    c. Bindusara
    d. Udayin
74. Statements about Government of India Act 1919:
75. Dyarchy in provinces
76. Bicameral legislature
77. Extended franchise

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. All

75. The Treaty of Seringapatam ended:
    a. Third Mysore War
    b. First Maratha War
    c. Second Anglo-Sikh War
    d. Battle of Buxar
76. The ‘Humayun Nama’ was written by:
    a. Gulbadan Begum
    b. Abul Fazl
    c. Badauni
    d. Khwand Amir
77. Which Chola king conquered Sri Lanka?
    a. Rajaraja I
    b. Rajendra I
    c. Vijayalaya
    d. Aditya I
78. The Simon Commission arrived in:
    a. 1928
    b. 1927
    c. 1930
    d. 1929

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Geography

79. Consider statements about the Ring of Fire:
80. Encircles Pacific Ocean
81. Site of frequent earthquakes and volcanoes
82. Associated with plate boundaries

Which are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. All

80. Consider statements about monsoons:
81. Caused by differential heating
82. Bring rain to India from southwest

Which is correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. Neither

81. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (River)	List-II (Origin)
a. Ganga	1. Gangotri
b. Yamuna	2. Yamunotri
c. Brahmaputra	3. Mansarovar
d. Indus	4. Kailash

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
C. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
D. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

82. The Coral Bleaching event in 2025 affected:
    a. Great Barrier Reef
    b. Andamans
    c. Maldives
    d. All
83. The Narmada River flows:
    a. Westward
    b. Eastward
    c. Northward
    d. Southward
84. Which is a UNESCO biosphere reserve?
    a. Nilgiri
    b. Sunderbans
    c. Both
    d. None
85. Consider statements about Western Ghats:
86. Biodiversity hotspot
87. Influence monsoon
88. Older than Himalayas

Which are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. All

86. The alternative name for the Yellow River is:
    a. Hwang Ho
    b. Yangtze
    c. Mekong
    d. Irrawaddy
87. Petroleum in India is mainly in:
    a. Assam
    b. Gujarat
    c. Both
    d. Rajasthan
88. The Indira Gandhi Canal is from:
    a. Sutlej
    b. Ravi
    c. Beas
    d. Chenab
89. Assertion (A): Deserts have high diurnal temperature range.
    Reason (R): Low specific heat of sand and clear skies.

Select the correct answer:
a. Both A and R true, R explains A
b. Both true, R does not explain A
c. A true, R false
d. A false, R true

90. Match the climate types:

List-I (Type)	List-II (Region)
a. Equatorial	1. Amazon
b. Mediterranean	2. California
c. Tundra	3. Siberia
d. Savanna	4. Africa

A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
D. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

91. The Thar Desert is:
    a. Hot desert
    b. Cold desert
    c. Coastal desert
    d. Rain shadow
92. Local time in Sydney (151° E) when Greenwich is noon:
    a. 10 p.m.
    b. 10 a.m.
    c. 2 p.m.
    d. 2 a.m.
93. Which is correct?
    a. Manganese in Odisha
    b. Copper in Rajasthan
    c. Both
    d. None
94. Parallels of latitude are:
    a. Equal length
    b. Decreasing length poleward
    c. Increasing length poleward
    d. None
95. The Terai region is:
    a. Marshy
    b. Hilly
    c. Desert
    d. Plateau
96. The Deccan Plateau is bounded by:
    a. Western and Eastern Ghats
    b. Himalayas
    c. Aravallis
    d. Vindhyas only
97. Which Uttarakhand district borders China?
    a. Pithoragarh
    b. Dehradun
    c. Haridwar
    d. Nainital
98. The Antarctic Circumpolar Current is in:
    a. Southern Ocean
    b. Pacific
    c. Atlantic
    d. Indian

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Polity

99. The doctrine of ‘harmonious construction’ is used in:
    a. Interpreting statutes
    b. Judicial review
    c. Emergency provisions
    d. Federal relations
100. The 101st Amendment introduced:
     a. GST
     b. NJAC
     c. RTI
     d. RTE
101. Other Backward Classes are identified under:
     a. Article 340
     b. Article 341
     c. Article 342
     d. Article 338
102. Concurrent List was borrowed from:
     a. Australia
     b. Canada
     c. Ireland
     d. USA
103. Freedom of religion is in:
     a. Article 25-28
     b. Article 19-22
     c. Article 14-18
     d. Article 29-30
104. The Lok Sabha strength is:
     a. 543
     b. 545
     c. 552
     d. 550
105. The Seventh Schedule deals with:
     a. Division of powers
     b. Panchayats
     c. Municipalities
     d. Languages
106. The NJAC was struck down in:
     a. Fourth Judges Case
     b. Third Judges Case
     c. Second Judges Case
     d. First Judges Case
107. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Amendment)	List-II (Subject)
a. 42nd	1. Mini Constitution
b. 44th	2. Property right removal
c. 61st	3. Voting age 18
d. 73rd	4. Panchayats

A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
D. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

108. Article 280 is for:
     a. Finance Commission
     b. UPSC
     c. CAG
     d. Election Commission
109. The FRBM Act aims for:
110. Fiscal discipline
111. Debt reduction
112. Revenue surplus

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All

110. The NITI Aayog was formed in:
     a. 2015
     b. 2014
     c. 2016
     d. 2017

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Economy

111. Consider statements about V-shaped recovery:
112. Sharp decline followed by sharp rise
113. India post-COVID

Which is correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. Neither

112. The Competition Act 2002 regulates:
     a. Monopolies
     b. Anti-competitive practices
     c. Both
     d. None
113. Consider statements about MGNREGA:
114. 100 days employment
115. Rural areas
116. Legal guarantee

Which are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All

114. Sustainable development goals are for:
     a. 2030
     b. 2025
     c. 2047
     d. 2050
115. Article 266 deals with:
     a. Consolidated Fund
     b. Contingency Fund
     c. Public Account
     d. All
116. The RBI’s inflation target is:
     a. 4% ±2%
     b. 2% ±1%
     c. 6% ±2%
     d. 5% ±1%
117. Consider statements about Startup India:
118. Launched 2016
119. Tax exemptions
120. Funding support

Which are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All

118. Consider statements about UPI:
119. NPCI product
120. Real-time payments
121. International in some countries

Which are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All

119. Inflation targeting is by:
120. Monetary Policy Committee
121. RBI Governor
122. Finance Minister

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. All

120. As per Economic Survey 2024, India’s growth rate:
     a. 6.5-7%
     b. 7-7.5%
     c. 8%+
     d. 5.5%
121. India’s rank in Global Innovation Index 2024:
     a. 39
     b. 40
     c. 42
     d. 45
122. Capital expenditures are for:
     a. Asset creation
     b. Salaries
     c. Pensions
     d. Subsidies
123. FDI in India is highest from:
     a. Mauritius
     b. Singapore
     c. USA
     d. Japan
124. The 15th Finance Commission term:
     a. 2020-2025
     b. 2021-2026
     c. 2019-2024
     d. 2022-2027
125. The first economic census in India was in:
     a. 1977
     b. 1980
     c. 1990
     d. 2000
126. The Doctrine of Eclipse applies to:
     a. Fundamental Rights
     b. Directive Principles
     c. Laws inconsistent with FR
     d. Judicial review
127. The Bihar Panchayat Raj Act was amended in:
     a. 2006
     b. 2010
     c. 2020
     d. 2024
128. Chronology of constitutional developments:
129. Government of India Act 1858
130. Indian Councils Act 1861
131. Indian Councils Act 1892
132. Minto-Morley Reforms 1909

a. 1-2-3-4
b. 2-1-3-4
c. 1-3-2-4
d. 4-3-2-1

129. Lord Wavell is associated with:
     a. Simla Conference
     b. Cripps Mission
     c. Cabinet Mission
     d. Round Table Conference
130. Treaty after First Anglo-Burmese War:
     a. Yandabo
     b. Salbai
     c. Lahore
     d. Amritsar
131. Portuguese factory in Bihar at:
     a. Chapra
     b. Patna
     c. Monghyr
     d. Hajipur
132. Gandhi’s first civil disobedience was:
     a. Champaran
     b. Kheda
     c. Ahmedabad
     d. Dandi
133. The INA trials were held at:
     a. Red Fort
     b. Cellular Jail
     c. Jallianwala Bagh
     d. Lahore Fort
134. ‘Lok Nayak’ is:
     a. Jayaprakash Narayan
     b. Lala Lajpat Rai
     c. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
     d. Bhagat Singh
135. The Rowlatt Act led to:
     a. Jallianwala Bagh massacre
     b. Non-Cooperation
     c. Both
     d. None
136. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
a. Theosophical Society	1. Annie Besant
b. Young Bengal	2. Henry Derozio
c. Aligarh Movement	3. Sir Syed Ahmed
d. Rehnumai Mazdayasan Sabha	4. Naoroji Dadabhai

A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
D. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

137. Aruna Asaf Ali was known as:
     a. Grand Old Lady of Independence
     b. Heroine of 1942
     c. Both
     d. None
138. Who was not a Viceroy?
     a. Linlithgow
     b. Wavell
     c. Mountbatten
     d. Gandhi
139. “The Indian Struggle” is by:
     a. Subhas Bose
     b. Nehru
     c. Patel
     d. Ambedkar
140. The Poona Pact was in:
     a. 1932
     b. 1931
     c. 1933
     d. 1930

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Mental Ability

141. If ‘BLUE’ is ‘YOFV’, ‘GREEN’ is:
     a. TIVVM
     b. TIVVM
     c. TJVVM
     d. TIUVM
142. X to north of Y, Z east of Y, W opposite Z, W right of X. True?
     a. X and Z same
     b. W south
     c. Y west of Z
     d. X and W opposite
143. Buy goods at 100, sell at 120, buy back at 80. Profit?
     a. 50
     b. 40
     c. 60
     d. 30
144. Odd pair:
     a. Circle: Diameter
     b. Square: Side
     c. Triangle: Altitude
     d. Rectangle: Diagonal
145. Series: 7, 10, 16, 25, 37, ?
     a. 52
     b. 50
     c. 51
     d. 53
146. Missing number:

2 | 3 | 5
7 | 11 | 13
17 | ? | 23

a. 19
b. 21
c. 29
d. 31

147. Statement: Some doctors are engineers. All engineers are scientists.
     Conclusions:
148. Some doctors are scientists.
149. All scientists are doctors.

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. Neither

148. If ‘SUMMER’ is ‘HFNNVI’, ‘WINTER’ is:
     a. DRMGV I
     b. DRNGVI
     c. DRMGVI
     d. DRMGVJ
149. Odd group: 13,17,19 29,31,37 41,43,47 53,59,61
     a. First
     b. Second
     c. Third
     d. Fourth
150. Points P,Q,R,S. P west of Q 6 km; S north of R 4 km; Q northeast of R 5 km. Distance P to S?
     a. 5 km
     b. 7 km
     c. √41 km
     d. √61 km