Part I:
The New Labour Codes & Wages

1. With reference to the Code on Wages, 2019, consider the following statements:

1. The concept of “Floor Wage” is statutory and binding on all State Governments, and no State Government can fix a minimum wage below it.
2. The definition of “wages” under this Code excludes the House Rent Allowance (HRA) and overtime allowance for the purpose of calculating social security contributions if they exceed 50% of the total remuneration.
3. It subsumes the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements regarding the “Inspector-cum-Facilitator” introduced in the new Labour Codes:

1. Their primary role has shifted from enforcement-only to providing advice and information to employers and workers.
2. They have the power to conduct inspections web-based and electronically, but they cannot enter workplace premises without a prior warrant from a Magistrate.
3. They can allow employers to rectify non-compliance for certain offenses before initiating prosecution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. With reference to the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, consider the following statements regarding “Strikes”:

1. The definition of a strike now includes mass casual leave by fifty percent or more of workers on a given day.
2. The notice period for strikes is now mandatory for all industrial establishments, not just public utility services.
3. Workers are prohibited from going on strike during the pendency of proceedings before a Tribunal and for 60 days after the conclusion of such proceedings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Regarding “Fixed Term Employment” under the Code on Social Security, 2020, consider the following:

1. Fixed-term employees are eligible for gratuity only if they complete a continuous service of five years.
2. They are entitled to the same social security benefits as permanent employees, proportionate to their service period.
3. The employer is not required to give any notice of termination if the contract ends due to the expiry of the fixed term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Consider the following statements about “Gig Workers” and “Platform Workers” under the Code on Social Security, 2020:

1. The Code provides a distinct definition for “Gig Worker” separate from “Unorganised Worker”.
2. The Central Government acts as the sole contributor to the social security fund for gig workers; aggregators have no financial liability.
3. A National Social Security Board is to be constituted for the welfare of gig and platform workers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Part II: Industrial Relations Concepts & Trade Unions

6. Which of the following statements correctly describes the “Dunlop’s Systems Approach” to Industrial Relations?

1. It views industrial relations as a subsystem of the wider society involving three actors: the state, employers, and workers.
2. It emphasizes that the rules of the system are determined solely by the market forces of demand and supply.
3. It considers technology, market constraints, and power distribution as the environmental contexts.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Under the Trade Unions Act, 1926 (and retained in IR Code), consider the following regarding the registration of a Trade Union:

1. A minimum of seven members is required to apply for registration.
2. At least 10% or 100 workers (whichever is less) must be members of the union at the time of making the application.
3. A registered Trade Union loses its immunity from civil suits if the strike called by it is illegal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. With reference to “Collective Bargaining”, consider the following statements:

1. In “Conjunctive Bargaining”, one party gains at the expense of the other (Zero-sum game).
2. “Cooperative Bargaining” focuses on expanding the pie so that both parties benefit (Win-win).
3. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, explicitly defines the term “Collective Bargaining” and makes it mandatory for all industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Consider the following statements regarding the “Grievance Redressal Committee” (GRC) under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020:

1. Every industrial establishment employing 20 or more workers must constitute a GRC.
2. The GRC must have equal representation of women workers proportionate to their strength in the establishment.
3. The decision of the GRC is final and cannot be challenged in an Industrial Tribunal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

10. Which of the following is/are the correct criteria for a “Negotiating Union” or “Sole Bargaining Agent” under the new IR Code?

1. If there is only one union, it is recognized as the sole negotiating agent.
2. If there are multiple unions, the one with 51% or more membership of workers is recognized as the negotiating union.
3. If no union has 51%, a “Negotiating Council” is formed with representatives from unions having at least 20% membership.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Part III: Social Security & International Labour Organization (ILO)

11. With reference to the Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) Scheme, consider the following:

1. It is mandatory for establishments employing 20 or more persons.
2. An employee whose “pay” exceeds ₹15,000 per month at the time of joining is legally an “Excluded Employee”.
3. The Central Government contributes 1.16% of the wages towards the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Consider the following statements regarding the “Maternity Benefit Act, 1961” (as amended):

1. It applies to every establishment being a factory, mine, or plantation, but not to shops or establishments under state laws.
2. The maximum period of paid maternity leave is 26 weeks for the first two surviving children.
3. Commissioning mothers (using surrogacy) are entitled to 12 weeks of maternity leave.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Regarding the International Labour Organization (ILO) Conventions, consider the following:

1. India has ratified all eight Core Conventions of the ILO.
2. Convention No. 87 (Freedom of Association) and Convention No. 98 (Right to Collective Bargaining) have not been ratified by India.
3. The “Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work” (1998) binds all member states to respect core principles regardless of ratification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. With reference to the Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act, consider the following:

1. It applies to non-seasonal factories using power and employing 10 or more persons.
2. The ESI Corporation is a statutory body under the Ministry of Finance.
3. “Sickness Benefit” under ESI is payable for a maximum of 91 days in two consecutive benefit periods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, consider the following:

1. Gratuity is payable to an employee on the termination of employment after continuous service of not less than five years.
2. The five-year condition is waived if the termination is due to death or disablement.
3. The maximum ceiling of gratuity is tax-free up to ₹20 Lakhs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Part IV: OSH & Specific Provisions

16. With reference to the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, consider the following:

1. It mandates the constitution of a National Occupational Safety and Health Advisory Board.
2. It expands the definition of “Inter-State Migrant Worker” to include any person recruited directly by an employer or through a contractor in one state for employment in another state.
3. It removes the distinction between “adolescent” and “child” for hazardous processes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. Consider the following statements regarding “Lay-off” and “Retrenchment” under the Industrial Disputes Act (and IR Code):

1. Establishments with less than 100 workers can lay off workmen without prior permission from the Appropriate Government.
2. Retrenchment refers to the termination of service as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action.
3. The “Last In, First Out” principle is statutorily recognized for retrenchment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

18. Which of the following authorities are responsible for adjudication under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

1. Industrial Tribunals
2. Labour Courts
3. National Industrial Tribunals

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. With reference to the “Model Standing Orders”, consider the following:

1. They regulate the classification of workmen, holidays, shift working, and termination of employment.
2. Under the new IR Code, the threshold for mandatory Standing Orders has been increased from 100 to 300 workers.
3. The Central Government is the sole authority to certify Standing Orders for all industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements regarding the “Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act” (now OSH Code):

1. It applies to every establishment in which 20 or more workmen are employed as contract labour.
2. Contract labour can be employed in core activities of an establishment if the activity is intermittent in nature.
3. The principal employer is liable to pay wages if the contractor fails to do so.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Part V: Mixed Bag (Questions 21-50)

21. “Subsistence Allowance” is payable to a workman who is:
(a) Laid off due to shortage of power.
(b) Suspended pending a domestic enquiry.
(c) Retrenched due to closure of the unit.
(d) Injured during the course of employment.

22. Which of the following is NOT a “Public Utility Service” under the Industrial Disputes Act?
(a) Transport service for carriage of passengers by air.
(b) Any postal, telegraph or telephone service.
(c) Automobile manufacturing industry.
(d) Any system of public conservancy or sanitation.

23. Consider the following statements about the “Whitley Councils”:

1. They were established based on the recommendations of the Royal Commission on Labour (1931).
2. They function as a mechanism for joint consultation between government (as employer) and its employees.
3. They are tripartite bodies involving the Government, Private Sector, and Trade Unions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

24. The “Philadelphia Declaration” (1944) of the ILO is famous for stating which of the following?
(a) Labour is not a commodity.
(b) Poverty anywhere constitutes a danger to prosperity everywhere.
(c) Freedom of expression and of association are essential to sustained progress.
(d) All of the above.

25. Under the Code on Wages, 2019, the “Central Advisory Board” consists of:

1. Representing employers.
2. Representing employees.
3. Independent persons.
4. Five representatives of State Governments.

Select the correct combination:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. Which theoretical perspective of Industrial Relations views conflict as inevitable and legitimate, serving as a catalyst for change?
(a) Unitary Perspective
(b) Pluralist Perspective
(c) Marxist Perspective
(d) Gandhian Perspective

27. The concept of “Protected Workman” is associated with:
(a) Employees State Insurance Act
(b) Factories Act
(c) Industrial Disputes Act
(d) Trade Unions Act

28. With reference to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, consider the following:

1. A “Child” is a person who has not completed his 14th year of age.
2. “Adolescents” (14-18 years) are prohibited from working in hazardous occupations.
3. Children are permitted to help their family in family enterprises after school hours.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

29. The “Principle of Natural Justice” in a domestic enquiry implies:

1. No one should be a judge in his own cause (Nemo judex in causa sua).
2. Hear the other party (Audi alteram partem).
3. The enquiry officer must be a legal expert.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

30. Under the Factories Act, 1948, the term “Occupier” refers to: (a) The owner of the building.
(b) The person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory.
(c) The manager appointed under the Act.
(d) The safety officer of the factory.

31. Consider the following statements about the “Employee’s Pension Scheme, 1995”:

1. It is a defined contribution scheme.
2. It provides for a widow pension, children pension, and orphan pension.
3. Minimum 10 years of eligible service is required for entitlement to pension.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

32. The “Harry Miller” test is often used in Industrial Relations to determine:
(a) The validity of a strike.
(b) Whether a person is a workman or an independent contractor. (c) The fairness of wages.
(d) The level of fatigue in a worker.

33. Which of the following is NOT one of the sub-components of the “Living Wage” concept?
(a) Education for children.
(b) Protection against ill-health.
(c) Essential social needs.
(d) Luxury travel allowance.

34. In the context of Industrial Relations, “Adjudication” refers to: (a) Mutual negotiation between employer and employee.
(b) Intervention by a third party to bring about a settlement.
(c) Mandatory settlement of disputes by Labour Courts/Tribunals.
(d) Voluntary arbitration by a private individual.

35. The “Code of Discipline” in Industry (1958) was adopted by: (a) The Parliament of India.
(b) The Supreme Court of India.
(c) The Indian Labour Conference.
(d) The NITI Aayog.

36. “Unfair Labour Practices” are listed in which Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Third Schedule
(c) Fifth Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule

37. With reference to the “Payment of Bonus Act, 1965”, consider the following:

1. It applies to every factory and establishment employing 20 or more persons.
2. The minimum bonus payable is 8.33% of the salary or wage.
3. The maximum bonus payable is 25% of the salary or wage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

38. The “Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923” (now Employee’s Compensation Act) follows the doctrine of:
(a) Vicarious Liability
(b) Strict Liability
(c) Contributory Negligence
(d) Notional Extension of Employment

39. Who among the following is the Chairman of the “Central Board of Trustees” (CBT) of EPFO?
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Union Minister for Labour and Employment
(c) Central Provident Fund Commissioner
(d) Finance Minister of India

40. The “Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan” (PMSYM) scheme is available for:
(a) All unorganized workers earning less than ₹15,000/month.
(b) Organized sector workers with no PF account.
(c) Unorganized workers aged between 18 and 40 years.
(d) Both (a) and (c).

41. “Recognition of Trade Unions” is statutorily mandatory under: (a) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971
(d) None of the above

42. Which IR Code introduced the “Reskilling Fund” for retrenched workers?

(a) Code on Wages
(b) Industrial Relations Code
(c) Social Security Code
(d) OSH Code

43. A “Settlement” under the Industrial Disputes Act is binding on:

1. All parties to the industrial dispute.
2. All other parties summoned to appear in the proceedings.
3. Future employees of the establishment.

Select the correct answer:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

44. The theory of “Trusteeship” in Industrial Relations was propounded by
: (a) Karl Marx
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) V.V. Giri
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

45. Under the OSH Code, women can be employed in night shifts (7 PM to 6 AM) provided:
(a) It is a software industry.
(b) They give their consent and safety protocols are followed.
(c) The factory employs more than 100 women.
(d) The State Government grants special permission.

46. Which of the following is an example of “Tripartite Body” in India?
(a) Indian Labour Conference (ILC)
(b) Standing Labour Committee (SLC)
(c) Committee on Conventions
(d) All of the above

47. The “Equal Remuneration Act, 1976” prohibits discrimination on the ground of sex in:
(a) Recruitment only.
(b) Payment of wages only.
(c) Transfers and promotions only.
(d) Recruitment and payment of wages for same or similar work.

48. “Wildcat Strike” refers to:
(a) A strike authorized by the union leadership.
(b) A sudden, unauthorized strike by a group of workers without union approval.
(c) A strike where workers stay at the workplace but refuse to work.
(d) A strike limited to a specific department.

49. The “Koyla Kara” case (1956) is a landmark judgment related to:
(a) Definition of Industry.
(b) Equal pay for equal work.
(c) Contract labour abolition.
(d) Right to strike.

50. Under the Code on Social Security, the “limitation period” for determining inquiries regarding PF dues is:
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) No limitation period

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