BPSC 68th Prelims Solved Paper — All 150 Questions with Official Final Answer Key & BPSC Explanations
All 150 questions of the BPSC 68th Combined (Preliminary) Competitive Examination held on 12.02.2023, reproduced from BPSC’s Series-A question booklet, with the final answer, cross-series numbering and the Commission’s remark from its FINAL ANSWER KEY (General Studies) under each question.
Quick Facts
- Exam date: 12.02.2023 (as printed on BPSC final answer key).
- Paper: General Studies · 150 questions · 150 marks · 2 hours · −1/4 per wrong answer (first cycle with uniform negative marking).
- Answers on this page: 150/150 Series-A answers from the BPSC FINAL key; deleted questions (Series-A numbers): 22.
- Prelims result: 3,590 candidates declared successful for Mains; UR cut-off 91.00.
- Question text: reproduced from BPSC’s Series-A question booklet (Q141–145 from the Series-B booklet).
About this solved paper (and what is verified)
Use with: BPSC hub on CrackTarget · Constitution study notes · Biology notes · Current affairs hub.
Paper analysis at a glance
150
Questions in key
1
Deleted by BPSC
91.00
UR Prelims cut-off
Answer-option distribution (Series-A final key)
| Option | Count in Series-A key |
|---|---|
| A | 40 |
| B | 42 |
| C | 44 |
| D | 9 |
| Deleted | 1 |
| E | 14 |
- No single option dominates enough to justify “pattern guessing” — with −1/4 per wrong answer (first cycle with uniform negative marking), blind guessing is a net loss on average.
- Option E answers: 14 questions in Series-A have E as the final answer — BPSC’s ‘none of the above / more than one of the above’ style option. Practise E-discipline.
- Deleted questions carry no marks for anyone (standard BPSC handling) — effective paper size = 149.
- Read BPSC’s remarks: they reveal the Commission’s reasoning standard (e.g., ‘among the following’ vs ‘in India’).
Full question paper with official answers & BPSC remarks (Series-A)
Each question below shows the Series-A number, the final answer (correct option highlighted), the same question’s number in Series B, C and D, and the Commission’s remark from the final key.
Questions 1–25
Q1. Answer: A Same question: B-44 · C-97 · D-134
The phrase ‘equality before law’ used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of
- (A) Britain
- (B) USA
- (C) France
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q2. Answer: C Same question: B-45 · C-98 · D-135
What was the duration in the making of the Indian Constitution?
- (A) 1 year 10 months and 12 days
- (B) 2 years 10 months and 5 days
- (C) 2 years 11 months and 18 days
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The Constituent Assembly sat for the first time on 9th December 1946 and final draft was ready on 26th Nov 1949 So it was precisely 2 years 11 months and 18 days. Hence answer 'C' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q3. Answer: C Same question: B-46 · C-99 · D-126
The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to
- (A) the Chief Minister
- (B) the Governor
- (C) the Legislative Assembly
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly. Similarly Union Council of Ministers is responsible to the Parliament. That's why there are questions, debate, call attention motion etc in the LA/Parliament where Ministers give their replies. So correct answer is 'C' and objection is baseless/wrong.
Q4. Answer: B Same question: B-47 · C-100 · D-127
Consider the following statements :
In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralization of
1. decision-making powers
2. system as a whole
3. judicial powers
4. administrative powers
Which of the above statements are correct?
- (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Gram kachahari/sarpanch is an old system. Though it works like a court for petty disputes etc, it is still a part of the Executive. The separation of power or the three pillars of State are legislature, executive & judiciary. 73rd Amendment is about local self-governance and decentralisation of governance. It doesn't decentralise judiciary. Hence answer 'B' is correct and…
Q5. Answer: D Same question: B-48 · C-91 · D-128
The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes
- (A) members directly elected by citizens
- (B) members indirectly elected by citizens through their representatives
- (C) members nominated by the President of India
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Both B & C options are correct. Hence answer 'D' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q6. Answer: D Same question: B-49 · C-92 · D-129
Which of the following is concerned with the Supreme Court of India?
- (A) Appellate jurisdiction
- (B) Original jurisdiction
- (C) Collegium system
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: All the three options are associated with the Supreme Court of India. Hence answer 'D' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q7. Answer: A Same question: B-50 · C-93 · D-130
The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be how many years according to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
- (A) 21 years
- (B) 25 years
- (C) 18 years
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q8. Answer: E Same question: B-41 · C-94 · D-131
With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at the district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (A) The State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.
- (B) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
- (C) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'E'. Pecuniary jurisdiction was amended from 1 crore to 50 lakhs in Dec 2021, so no statement is incorrect. Hence answer 'E' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected. Source MINISTRY OF CONSUMER AFFAIRS, FOOD AND PUBLIC DISTRIBUTION (Department of Consumer Affairs) NOTIFICATION New Delhi, the 30th December, 2021 G.S.R. 912(E) [F. No.…
Q9. Answer: C Same question: B-42 · C-95 · D-132
At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate a Panchayati Raj structure?
- (A) District level
- (B) Gram Panchayat level
- (C) Block-level body
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q10. Answer: A Same question: B-43 · C-96 · D-133
Which one of the following was established as the first programme of community development?
- (A) National Extension Service
- (B) Integrated Rural Development Programme
- (C) Cooperation Movement
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'A'. NES was launched in 1953. Hence answer 'A' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q11. Answer: A Same question: B-56 · C-108 · D-141
Which of the following are the objectives of the SEZ Act, 2005?
1. Generation of additional economic activity
2. Promotion of exports of goods and services
3. Creation of employment
- (A) 1, 2 and 3
- (B) 2 and 3 only
- (C) 1 and 3 only
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: All the statements are correct but only one option 'A' is correct. Objection is wrong and hence rejected.
Q12. Answer: D Same question: B-57 · C-109 · D-142
What is the policy measure adopted by the Government of India to improve the system of agricultural marketing?
- (A) Minimum Support Price (MSP)
- (B) Maintenance of Buffer Stock
- (C) Public Distribution System (PDS)
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: All the three options are policy measures to improve the agricultural marketing in India. Hence answer 'D' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q13. Answer: B Same question: B-58 · C-110 · D-143
Which committee suggested the enactment of the Competition Act, 2002?
- (A) Rangarajan Committee
- (B) S. V. S. Raghavan Committee
- (C) Vijay Kelkar Committee
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q14. Answer: A Same question: B-59 · C-101 · D-144
Match List-I with List-II :
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Grey Revolution | 1. Onion production |
| b. Pink Revolution | 2. Tomato and meat production |
| c. Silver Revolution | 3. Production of eggs |
| d. Red Revolution | 4. Fertilizers |
- (A) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
- (B) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
- (C) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q15. Answer: E Same question: B-60 · C-102 · D-145
Which of the following Five-Year Plans was focussed on Human Resource Development?
- (A) First
- (B) Third
- (C) Fifth
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'E'. 8th Five Year Plan was focused on HRD. Hence no option is correct. Objection is wrong and hence rejected.
Q16. Answer: A Same question: B-61 · C-103 · D-146
Which of the following States of India received the highest Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity flow during April to September 2022?
- (A) Karnataka
- (B) Tripura
- (C) Gujarat
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'A'. The question is about the highest FDI recipient State amongst the 'following' that is amongst the given list of States only and not amongst all the States of India. Amongst all the States of India, answer would have been Maharashtra but as asked in the question, amongst the given list of States, correct answer is Karnataka. Hence answer 'A'…
Q17. Answer: B Same question: B-62 · C-104 · D-147
In which budget did the Finance Minister announce the Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System?
- (A) Union Budget, 1991–1992
- (B) Union Budget, 1992–1993
- (C) Union Budget, 1993–1994
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The Indian government introduced the Liberalised Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) in March 1992 under Union Budget1992- 1993. Hence answer 'B' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q18. Answer: E Same question: B-63 · C-105 · D-148
Which of the following were goals of the Five-Year Plans?
1. Growth
2. Modernization
3. Self-reliance
4. Literature
- (A) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'E'. Statement 4 (Literature) in false. Since all the options A, B & C contains statement 4. Hence none of the options are correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q19. Answer: A Same question: B-64 · C-106 · D-149
Which organization carries out the survey for determining the poverty line?
- (A) NSSO
- (B) NITI Aayog
- (C) RBI
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Niti Aayog has come out with a poverty index based on research/ analysis of various parameters. But for this, Niti Aayog doesn't do any survey. Instead, it depends on survey data provided by NSSO and also various reports/ analysis of other think tanks, educational institutions etc. Hence answer 'A' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q20. Answer: C Same question: B-65 · C-107 · D-150
The trade balance of India (merchandise and services) for December 2022 (provisional) is
- (A) (–) 10·50 USD billion
- (B) (+) 11·98 USD billion
- (C) (–) 11·98 USD billion
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q21. Answer: A Same question: B-51 · C-111 · D-139
At what percentage has Bihar registered the lowest Female Workforce Participation Rate for the year 2020–2022?
- (A) 4% in rural and 6·5% in urban areas
- (B) 6% in rural and 8·1% in urban areas
- (C) 7% in rural and 9·1% in urban areas
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Correct answer is 'A'. Objection is baseless and wrong hence rejected.
Q22. Deleted by BPSC Same question: B-52 · C-112 · D-140
The maximum number of tax industries is in which district?
- (A) Darbhanga
- (B) Purnia
- (C) Kishanganj
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Question doesn't specify such a district amongst given (following) 3 districts only or all districts in Bihar or in India. So it should be deleted. Hence the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q23. Answer: A Same question: B-53 · C-113 · D-136
According to the National Family Survey-5 released by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on November 24, 2021, there has been a significant improvement in the sex ratio of Bihar. It has increased from ____ in 2015–2016 to ____ in 2020–2022.
- (A) 1062, 1090
- (B) 1040, 1070
- (C) 1030, 1050
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q24. Answer: C Same question: B-54 · C-114 · D-137
According to the Bihar Economic Survey (2021–2022), what was the rate of growth of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar in 2020–2021?
- (A) 3%
- (B) 2%
- (C) 2·5%
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q25. Answer: D Same question: B-55 · C-115 · D-138
Which one of the following is correct for Bihar economy?
- (A) The growth rate is one of the lowest in India at 2·5%.
- (B) Bihar produces mostly primary goods.
- (C) The occupational structure of the economy is stagnant from above.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Economy of Bihar is mainly agrarian with more than 2/3 of population is still enaged in farming. So, options B & C both are correct hence the correct answer is 'D'. Objection is wrong and hence rejected.
Questions 26–50
Q26. Answer: B Same question: B-70 · C-124 · D-12
The Swadeshi and Boycott were adopted as the methods of struggle for the first time during the
- (A) visit of the Simon Commission to India
- (B) Partition of Bengal
- (C) Home Rule Movement
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q27. Answer: B Same question: B-71 · C-125 · D-13
At the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) held in 1906, the Flag of Swaraj for India was unfurled by
- (A) A. O. Hume
- (B) Dadabhai Naoroji
- (C) G. K. Gokhale
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q28. Answer: B Same question: B-72 · C-126 · D-14
During the freedom struggle, a parallel movement launched in the Indian States (in the States ruled by the Indian rulers such as Kashmir, Nizam’s Hyderabad, Travancore, etc.) was
- (A) State People’s Movement
- (B) Praja Mandal Movement
- (C) Swaraj Movement
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'B'. The term states Peoples Movements Refers to a general situation where different movements were organised in the princely states. These were variously referred to as States Peoples conference (NOT MOVEMENT), praja mandals and lok parishads option 'B' mentions PRAJA MANDAL which is the correct answer since other nomenclatures are not…
Q29. Answer: C Same question: B-73 · C-127 · D-15
Which of the following statements regarding the Indian freedom struggle is not correct?
- (A) Gandhiji withdrew from the Non-Cooperation Movement due to the Chauri-Chaura Incident.
- (B) Gandhiji gave his first major public speech at Banaras Hindu University.
- (C) Mahatma Gandhi was arrested in the year 1921.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Only option ' C' is not true. Options A & B are both true. Hence correct answer is 'C' and objection is wrong, so rejected.
Q30. Answer: B Same question: B-74 · C-128 · D-1
Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?
- (A) The Comrade
- (B) Al-Hilal
- (C) Zamindar
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q31. Answer: D Same question: B-75 · C-129 · D-2
How did the study of history help in creating a feeling of nationalism in India towards the end of the 19th century?
- (A) By reinterpreting history and refuting the British portrayal of Indians as backward, primitive and incapable of governing themselves
- (B) By writing about India’s glorious past and urging people to take pride in their achievements
- (C) By urging people to struggle and change the miserable conditions of life under the British rule
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Apart from option A, other options B & C are also correct. Hence answer 'D' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q32. Answer: C Same question: B-76 · C-130 · D-3
Which of the following statements are not correct regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement in the towns?
1. Only the upper caste and the rich took part in the movement.
2. The council elections were boycotted even by the Justice Party of Madras.
3. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their practice.
- (A) 1 and 3 only
- (B) 2 and 3 only
- (C) 1 and 2 only
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q33. Answer: C Same question: B-77 · C-116 · D-4
“A Sanyasi who came to that district after a spell as an indentured labourer in Fiji, carrying a copy of Tulsidas Ramayana on his back from which he would recite verses to rural audience.” The peasant leader referred to here is
- (A) Jhinguri Singh
- (B) Yadunandan Sharma
- (C) Baba Ram Chandra
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q34. Answer: B Same question: B-78 · C-117 · D-5
Who was the founder of All India Harijan Sangh in 1932?
- (A) Jagjivan Ram
- (B) Mahatma Gandhi
- (C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India. Omission of word 'Sevak' in the question does not materially alter it. Correct answer is 'B'. Hence objection is wrong and therefore rejected.
Q35. Answer: C Same question: B-79 · C-118 · D-6
On February 20, 1947, Prime Minister Attlee announced the British Government’s decision to withdraw from India latest by
- (A) August 1947
- (B) January 1948
- (C) June 1948
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q36. Answer: A Same question: B-80 · C-119 · D-7
Who established Swaraj Dal in Bihar?
- (A) Shri Krishna Singh
- (B) Ramlal Shah
- (C) Bankim Chandra Mitra
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q37. Answer: E Same question: B-66 · C-120 · D-8
During the Salt Satyagraha in Bihar, in addition to making salt, the people chose to oppose the government by opposing which tax?
- (A) Haathi
- (B) Development
- (C) Malba
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q38. Answer: B Same question: B-67 · C-121 · D-9
The elected Government of Bihar formed by Shri Krishna Singh resigned in February 1938 for which reason?
- (A) Participation in the Freedom Struggle of India
- (B) For the release of political prisoners
- (C) Satyagraha against the British at the call of Gandhiji
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Correct answer is 'B' and there is no confusion in the phrasing of the question and its options. Objection is wrong and hence rejected.
Q39. Answer: A Same question: B-68 · C-122 · D-10
Who saved the life of Gandhiji in Bihar during Champaran Satyagraha?
- (A) Batak Mian
- (B) Hamid Ansari
- (C) Ravindra Pathak
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q40. Answer: A Same question: B-69 · C-123 · D-11
Who led cultivators in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement?
- (A) Swami Vidyanand
- (B) Raj Kumar Shukla
- (C) Shri Krishna Singh
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is Swami Vidyanand. In Bihar, the pressure for the launching of the Non- Cooperation movement has been building up much before it was officially decided by the Congress party at Nagpur Session in December 1920. Hence answer 'A' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q41. Answer: E Same question: B-87 · C-143 · D-32
In ancient times, the area to the south of the Ganga was known as
- (A) Takshashila
- (B) Chola
- (C) Anarta
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: In ancient times the area along these rivers to the south of the Ganga was known as Magadha. Takshashila was situated between Indus and Jhelum river. Chola was situated in the south of Godavari river. Anarta is a Vedic period kingdom of ancient India described in the Mahabharata, roughly forming the northern Gujarat state of India. So the only correct answer is Magadh which…
Q42. Answer: E Same question: B-88 · C-144 · D-33
When did the use of iron begin in Indian subcontinent?
- (A) Around 12000 years ago
- (B) Around 6000 years ago
- (C) Around 9000 years ago
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q43. Answer: B Same question: B-89 · C-145 · D-34
According to the rock inscription in Sanskrit, composed around second century CE, Sudarshan Lake, an artificial reservoir, was repaired by
- (A) Kanishka
- (B) Rudradaman
- (C) Harsha
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q44. Answer: A Same question: B-90 · C-146 · D-35
The temple of Deogarh near Jhansi and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwa near Allahabad are the important remains of the
- (A) Gupta art
- (B) Rashtrakuta art
- (C) Maurya art
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q45. Answer: B Same question: B-91 · C-147 · D-16
In which of the following battles are the main opponents not correctly stated?
- (A) First Battle of Panipat—Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
- (B) Second Battle of Panipat—Tipu Sultan and Marathas
- (C) Battle of Haldighati—Maharana Pratap and Akbar
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Options A & C are correct and only option is not correct. Hence answer 'B' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q46. Answer: C Same question: B-92 · C-148 · D-17
During the Delhi Sultanate, the designation ‘Muqaddam or Chaudhari’ was used for
- (A) revenue officials
- (B) village accountant
- (C) village headman
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'C'. Muqaddam or Chowdhary was a village headman and in this capacity only was the highest revenue authority in the village and not just any revenue official or village accountant. Even today, village headmen are often called Choudhary in that region. Hence answer 'C' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q47. Answer: A Same question: B-93 · C-149 · D-18
Tabaqat-i-Akbari, which has been sometimes considered more reliable than Abul Fazl’s Akbarnama, was written by
- (A) Nizamuddin Ahmad
- (B) Abdul Hamid Lahori
- (C) Gulbadan Begum
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q48. Answer: C Same question: B-94 · C-150 · D-19
Who among the following famous rulers founded a suburban township of Nagalapuram, near Vijayanagara, after his mother’s name?
- (A) Harihara
- (B) Bukka
- (C) Krishnadevaraya
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q49. Answer: C Same question: B-95 · C-131 · D-20
In 1940, Patna Women’s College was founded by which of the following societies?
- (A) Society of Jesus
- (B) Irish Christian Brothers
- (C) Sisters of the Apostolic Carmel
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q50. Answer: C Same question: B-96 · C-132 · D-21
Who among the following headed the two Boundary Commissions set up to delineate the international frontiers between India and Pakistan in 1947?
- (A) A. P. Moon
- (B) A. V. Alexander
- (C) Cyril Radcliffe
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Questions 51–75
Q51. Answer: B Same question: B-97 · C-133 · D-22
Who introduced the system of Mahalwari Settlement in Bengal?
- (A) Lord Cornwallis
- (B) Holt Mackenzie
- (C) Lord Hastings
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Permanent settlement was introduced in Bengal in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis. In it, zamindars were made the owners of land and authorised to collect rent from the peasants. They were required to pay a fixed amount to the Company every year. This amount could not be increased later, however if the zamindars failed to pay, the Company could sell their land via public auction.…
Q52. Answer: B Same question: B-98 · C-134 · D-23
In 1940, Vinoba Bhave started individual Satyagraha from
- (A) Nadiad in Kheda district, Gujarat
- (B) Pavnar, Maharashtra
- (C) Punnapra-Vayalar, Kerala
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q53. Answer: C Same question: B-99 · C-135 · D-24
The Congress took a critical stand over the Montford Reforms in 1918, which led to break up with the old moderate remnants (Sapru, Jayakar and Chintamani) who formed the
- (A) Servants of India Society
- (B) Swaraj Party
- (C) Indian National Liberal Federation
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q54. Answer: B Same question: B-100 · C-136 · D-25
The Cabinet Mission was sent to India for which of the following?
1. To establish a national government
2. To work out a constitutional arrangement for the transfer of power
3. To work out the details of Jinnah’s demand for Pakistan
- (A) 1 only
- (B) 2 only
- (C) 3 only
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'B'. Cabinet Mission was sent to work out a constitutional arrangement for transfer of power. It was neither sent to establish the Govt nor to work out details of Jinnah's demand for Pakistan. Hence the answer option 'B' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q55. Answer: A Same question: B-81 · C-137 · D-26
Who among the following made an offer to Humayun that he would surrender Bihar and pay an annual tribute of 10 lakh dinars if he was allowed to retain Bengal?
- (A) Sher Khan
- (B) Bairam Khan
- (C) Bahadur Shah
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q56. Answer: A Same question: B-82 · C-138 · D-27
The Vikramshila University was established by
- (A) Dharmapala
- (B) Devapala
- (C) Gopala
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q57. Answer: A Same question: B-83 · C-139 · D-28
Who among the following was the first Governor of Bihar?
- (A) Sir James David Sifton
- (B) Sir Hugh Dow
- (C) Sir Maurice Garnier Hallett
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'A'. Sir James David Sifton was the Governor of Bihar and Orissa from 7 April 1932 to 31 March 1936 and then Governor of Bihar from 1 April 1936 to 10 March 1937. He was the first Governor of Bihar after division of province from Orissa. Hence the answer option 'A' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q58. Answer: C Same question: B-84 · C-140 · D-29
Who was the author of Mahatma Gandhi and Bihar, Some Reminiscences?
- (A) J. P. Narayan
- (B) Karpoori Thakur
- (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q59. Answer: C Same question: B-85 · C-141 · D-30
Which is the oldest church in Bihar?
- (A) Luke’s Church
- (B) Stephen’s Church
- (C) Padri Ki Haveli
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q60. Answer: B Same question: B-86 · C-142 · D-31
The late actor Kumudlal Ganguly, also known by his stage name Ashok Kumar, was born in which of the following cities of Bihar?
- (A) Munger
- (B) Bhagalpur
- (C) Patna
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q61. Answer: B Same question: B-111 · C-21 · D-36
Which of the following Union Ministries recently launched the YUVA 2.0 Scheme in 2022?
- (A) Health and Family Welfare Ministry
- (B) Education Ministry
- (C) AYUSH Mantralay
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q62. Answer: C Same question: B-112 · C-22 · D-37
The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s how many languages?
- (A) 40
- (B) 233
- (C) 576
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q63. Answer: B Same question: B-113 · C-23 · D-38
Which of the following committees submitted a report on gas pricing, recommending complete pricing freedom from January 1, 2026?
- (A) Arun Goel Committee
- (B) Kirit Parikh Committee
- (C) P. K. Mohanty Committee
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q64. Answer: E Same question: B-114 · C-24 · D-39
Which of the following cities was not conferred with five-star garbage-free city rank according to Swachh Survekshan, 2022?
- (A) Surat
- (B) Bhopal
- (C) Navi Mumbai
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: All the three cities were conferred with the title of 5 star garbage free city. So no option is correct. Hence answer 'E' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q65. Answer: B Same question: B-115 · C-25 · D-40
The Prime Minister inaugurated the first greenfield airport ‘Donyi Polo Airport’ in which of the following locations?
- (A) Dholka
- (B) Itanagar
- (C) Dibrugarh
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q66. Answer: A Same question: B-116 · C-26 · D-41
Which animal has been approved as a food animal by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) in November 2022?
- (A) Himalayan yak
- (B) Mountain goat
- (C) Himalayan tahr
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q67. Answer: A Same question: B-117 · C-27 · D-42
India’s first floating financial literacy camp was organized recently by India Post Payments Bank in which of the following locations?
- (A) Srinagar
- (B) Andaman Islands
- (C) Kerala
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q68. Answer: C Same question: B-118 · C-28 · D-43
The President of India inaugurated ‘PARAM KAMRUPA’ Supercomputer facility at which of the following IITs?
- (A) Kharagpur
- (B) Bombay
- (C) Guwahati
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q69. Answer: C Same question: B-119 · C-29 · D-44
In the 90th Indian Air Force Day, celebrated on 8th October, 2022, an hour-long air display of eighty aircrafts was carried out over which of the following locations?
- (A) Gateway of India, Mumbai
- (B) Dal Lake, Jammu and Kashmir
- (C) Sukhna Lake, Chandigarh
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q70. Answer: B Same question: B-120 · C-30 · D-45
Which month of the year is celebrated as Rashtriya Poshan Maah or National Nutrition Month under the Poshan Abhiyaan of the Government of India?
- (A) May
- (B) September
- (C) July
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q71. Answer: C Same question: B-121 · C-1 · D-46
What is the name of recently launched final module of China’s Tiangong Space Station?
- (A) Tianhe
- (B) Wentian
- (C) Mengtian
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q72. Answer: B Same question: B-122 · C-2 · D-47
Which of the following is the world’s largest volcano erupted for the first time in 38 years?
- (A) Mount St. Helens
- (B) Mauna Loa
- (C) Haleakala
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q73. Answer: C Same question: B-123 · C-3 · D-48
Who among the following recently received the 2022 Booker Prize for his novel, The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida?
- (A) Michael Ondaatje
- (B) Pradeep Mathew
- (C) Shehan Karunatilaka
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q74. Answer: C Same question: B-124 · C-4 · D-49
What was the theme of the World Space Week, 2022?
- (A) Women in Space
- (B) Satellites Improve Life
- (C) Space and Sustainability
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q75. Answer: A Same question: B-125 · C-5 · D-50
Which of the following laboratories claimed a historic nuclear fusion breakthrough in December 2022?
- (A) Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory
- (B) Oak Ridge National Laboratory
- (C) Los Alamos National Laboratory
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Questions 76–100
Q76. Answer: A Same question: B-126 · C-6 · D-51
Which of the following is Collins Dictionary’s word of the year 2022?
- (A) Permacrisis
- (B) Carolean
- (C) Lawfare
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q77. Answer: C Same question: B-127 · C-7 · D-52
Which of the following countries, along with Senegal, launched the International Drought Resilience Alliance during COP27?
- (A) Italy
- (B) Germany
- (C) Spain
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q78. Answer: B Same question: B-128 · C-8 · D-53
The Embassy of which country applied for a GI Tag for ‘Nihonshu’ for the first time in India?
- (A) China
- (B) Japan
- (C) South Korea
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q79. Answer: C Same question: B-129 · C-9 · D-54
Which of the following space agencies announced that it had successfully used steam to propel its EQUULEUS spacecraft?
- (A) NASA
- (B) SUPARCO
- (C) JAXA
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q80. Answer: A Same question: B-130 · C-10 · D-55
What is the name of Tesla humanoid robot launched in October 2022?
- (A) Optimus
- (B) Atlas
- (C) Pepper
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q81. Answer: C Same question: B-101 · C-11 · D-56
The first ‘floating solar power plant’ has been built at which place in Bihar?
- (A) Dilbarpur, Darbhanga
- (B) Jamalpur, Darbhanga
- (C) Kadirabad, Darbhanga
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q82. Answer: A Same question: B-102 · C-12 · D-57
According to the Economic Survey for the year 2019–2020, which district has lowest per capita income?
- (A) Sheohar
- (B) Araria
- (C) Sitamarhi
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q83. Answer: C Same question: B-103 · C-13 · D-58
According to the NITI Aayog SDG Report for the year 2020–2021, how much did the State of Bihar score?
- (A) 22 out of 100
- (B) 35 out of 100
- (C) 52 out of 100
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q84. Answer: B Same question: B-104 · C-14 · D-59
Which sport has been included in the Khelo India Women’s Tournament for the first time?
- (A) Cricket
- (B) Track Cycling
- (C) Archery
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q85. Answer: C Same question: B-105 · C-15 · D-60
Which of the following has been awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in August 2022?
- (A) Applique (Khatwa) Work of Bihar
- (B) Sikki Grass Products of Bihar
- (C) Mithila Makhana
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q86. Answer: E Same question: B-106 · C-16 · D-61
Which of the following has been added to the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2022?
- (A) Astronomical Observatory at the Langat Singh College
- (B) Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya
- (C) Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara at Nalanda
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'E'. Observatory Langat Singh College was not included in UNESCO list. It was a fake news duly clarified later. Hence the answer option 'E' is correct and objection is rejected. https://www.hindustantimes.com/science/unesco-says- observatory-in-biharcollege-not-included-in-world- heritage-list-101660031882706.html
Q87. Answer: E Same question: B-107 · C-17 · D-62
In the year 2020, Bihar gained the ____ rank out of 36 States in the Ease of Doing Business, awarded by Business Reforms Action Plan (BRAP).
- (A) 23rd
- (B) 24th
- (C) 25th
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q88. Answer: C Same question: B-108 · C-18 · D-63
Ganga Jal Aapurti Yojana was inaugurated by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar on November 28, 2022 at which place?
- (A) Lakhisarai
- (B) Rajgir
- (C) Bodh Gaya
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'C'. Sri Nitish Kumar inaugurated Ganga Jal Apurti Yojana at Rajgir on 27-11-2022 and at Bodh Gaya on 28-11-2022. The question refers to 28-11-2022 only. Hence the answer option 'C' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q89. Answer: B Same question: B-109 · C-19 · D-64
Which of the following associations/boards declared equal pay for men and women players in October 2022?
- (A) Bihar Cricket Association
- (B) Board of Control for Cricket in India
- (C) Gujarat Cricket Association
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q90. Answer: A Same question: B-110 · C-20 · D-65
The urbanization of the State has increased very rapidly in the last ten years. According to the 2011 Census, the level of urbanization in Bihar was just ____ percent, which has increased to ____ percent at present.
- (A) 11·3, 15·3
- (B) 12·2, 13·1
- (C) 14·4, 15·5
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q91. Answer: B Same question: B-138 · C-46 · D-66
In the end of its mountainous journey at Attock, the Indus River is joined by which river from Afghanistan?
- (A) Amu Darya
- (B) Kabul River
- (C) Helmand River
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q92. Answer: A Same question: B-139 · C-47 · D-67
Which one of the following is the well-publicised wildlife campaign in the world launched in 1973?
- (A) Project Tiger
- (B) Lion Project
- (C) Sunderbans Project
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q93. Answer: C Same question: B-140 · C-48 · D-68
Which of the following statements is true about troposphere?
- (A) It is the topmost layer of the atmosphere.
- (B) The temperature at this layer increases with the height.
- (C) Its average height is 13 km.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Temperature decreases with height. Hence answer 'C' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q94. Answer: B Same question: B-141 · C-49 · D-69
The southern continent broken from Pangaea is called
- (A) Laurasia
- (B) Gondwanaland
- (C) Pacific Ocean
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q95. Answer: B Same question: B-142 · C-50 · D-70
The Arctic region and the Antarctic continent are situated near
- (A) the Sahara Desert
- (B) the North and South Poles
- (C) the Amazon Basin
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q96. Answer: A Same question: B-143 · C-31 · D-71
Which States of India have common border with Myanmar?
- (A) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram
- (B) Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Mizoram
- (C) Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Assam and Tripura don't have common border with Myanmar. So only option 'A' is correct. Hence the objectionis wrong/rejected.
Q97. Answer: A Same question: B-144 · C-32 · D-72
Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising 21 islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, seagrasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?
- (A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
- (B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
- (C) Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q98. Answer: A Same question: B-145 · C-33 · D-73
In which type of climatic region do Uttar Pradesh and Bihar fall as per Köppen’s classification scheme?
- (A) Cwg
- (B) Aw
- (C) Dfc
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'A'. Aw covers south India, not UP/ Bihar. Correct answer is Cwg. Hence the answer option 'A' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q99. Answer: B Same question: B-146 · C-34 · D-74
India’s territorial limit extends towards the sea up to how many nautical miles/km from the coast?
- (A) 16 nautical miles (about 25·9 km)
- (B) 12 nautical miles (about 21·9 km)
- (C) 10 nautical miles (about 19·9 km)
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q100. Answer: D Same question: B-147 · C-35 · D-75
Which of the following river valleys is rich in coal reserves in India?
- (A) Damodar River Valley
- (B) Son River Valley
- (C) Mahanadi River Valley
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'D'. DVC has rich coal reserve but so have others. Hence the answer option 'D' is correct and objection is rejected.
Questions 101–125
Q101. Answer: D Same question: B-148 · C-36 · D-76
Which of the following statements is true about sugar industry in India?
- (A) It is a weight-losing industry.
- (B) Maharashtra has emerged as a leading sugar producer in the country.
- (C) Uttar Pradesh is the second largest producer of sugar.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Maharashtra has always been a major sugar producing state and it produced around 138Lakh MT surpassing 102L MT of UP in 2022- 23. All the three options are correct. Hence answer 'D' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q102. Answer: C Same question: B-149 · C-37 · D-77
Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as
- (A) Blossom showers
- (B) Norwesters
- (C) Mango showers
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'C'. Blossom shower, also called Cherry Blossom or Coffee Shower in Karnataka, is a local wind that blows in the interior of Karnataka (not in coastal Karnataka) in the hot weather season and this shower is good for coffee cultivation. The usual rainfall is of 25- 40mm from Feb-April. Coffee production in India is dominated in the hill tracts of…
Q103. Answer: C Same question: B-150 · C-38 · D-78
The atmosphere is mainly heated by the
- (A) short-wave solar radiation
- (B) reflected solar radiation
- (C) long-wave terrestrial radiation
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Atmosphere is heated by short wave solar radiation. The sun emits shortwave radiation because it is extremely hot and has a lot of energy to give off. Hence answer 'C' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q104. Answer: D Same question: B-131 · C-39 · D-79
Which of the following States of India borders with the maximum number of districts in Bihar?
- (A) Uttar Pradesh
- (B) Jharkhand
- (C) West Bengal
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option "D". Both Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand state have common border with 8 districts of Bihar. We have verified this with maps of these three states where we find that the eastern tip of Katihar district touches Jharkhand and Western tip of Rohtas district touches Uttar Pradesh. The full list is given below:- Border with UP Border with Jharkhand 1.…
Q105. Answer: B Same question: B-132 · C-40 · D-80
Which of the following is the last railway station of Bihar in the train route from Bhagalpur towards Mirza Cheuki?
- (A) Pirpainti Railway Station
- (B) Ammapali Railway Station
- (C) Kahalgaon Railway Station
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Ammapali railway station is a halt railway station on Sahibganj loop line. It is the last station in Bihar. Hence answer 'B' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q106. Answer: E Same question: B-133 · C-41 · D-81
With reference to the mineral production in Bihar, consider the following statements :
1. Rohtas has the highest deposit of pyrites.
2. Limestone is found in Kaimur (Bhabhua), Munger (Monghyr) and Rohtas districts.
3. Gold deposits are found in Jamui district.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (A) 3 only
- (B) 1 and 2 only
- (C) 1 and 3 only
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: All the statements are correct but none of the option is correct. Hence the answer option 'E' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q107. Answer: C Same question: B-134 · C-42 · D-82
Phalgu, a sacred river flowing in Bihar, is formed by the confluence of which of the following rivers?
- (A) Lilajan and Son rivers
- (B) Son and Mohana rivers
- (C) Mohana and Lilajan rivers
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The Phalgu River originates from the confluence (somewhere in the range of 3 kilometers beneath Bodh Gaya) of the Lilajan river and Mohana river Hence answer 'C' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q108. Answer: A Same question: B-135 · C-43 · D-83
In Bihar, tea gardens were established for the first time in which of the following places?
- (A) Thakurganj
- (B) Bahadurganj
- (C) Supaul
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: In 1980s, the tea gardens were developed in Pothia and Thakurganj blocks of Kishanganj. Now, just 10 kms. away from the district headquarters you can see the beautiful tea gardens at Belwa along the road leading towards Thakurganj. Hence answer 'A' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q109. Answer: A Same question: B-136 · C-44 · D-84
Choose the correct order of the following districts of Bihar as per the ascending decadal population growth (2001–2011).
- (A) Siwan < Kishanganj < Madhepura
- (B) Madhepura < Kishanganj < Siwan
- (C) Kishanganj < Madhepura < Siwan
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q110. Answer: A Same question: B-137 · C-45 · D-85
Which food industry dominates among the agro-based industries in Bihar?
- (A) Cereal-based industry
- (B) Pulses industry
- (C) Sugarcane industry
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'A'. Cereal based industry like Rice Millers dominate the agro- based industries in Bihar. Hence the answer option 'A' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q111. Answer: C Same question: B-6 · C-61 · D-106
Large number of thin strips of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be
- (A) a zebra of black stripes
- (B) a horse of black stripes
- (C) a horse of less brightness
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Thin black strips will only reduce the intensity of the light but will not cast any shadow as it is quite thin. Hence answer 'C' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q112. Answer: B Same question: B-7 · C-62 · D-107
Shrillness of sound is determined by
- (A) amplitude of sound
- (B) wavelength of sound
- (C) velocity of sound
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: It is true that shrillness of sound is determined by its frequency but frequency and wavelength are inversely proportionate. So, it is also true to say that shrillness of sound depends on its wavelength. For example, shorter the wavelength means higher the frequency and more shrill sound. Since frequency and wavelength are inseparably interlinked (velocity= wavelength x…
Q113. Answer: A Same question: B-8 · C-63 · D-108
Which of the following photoelectric devices is most suitable for digital applications?
- (A) Photovoltaic cell
- (B) Photoemitter
- (C) Photodiode
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'A'. The photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons when electromagnetic radiation, such as light, hits a material. And photoelectric device means which uses photoelectric effect, in other words which produces electricity / electric signal from light. Photovoltaic cell is one such device. Other devices in the option are exactly opposite…
Q114. Answer: C Same question: B-9 · C-64 · D-109
Ball bearings are used to convert static friction into
- (A) drag
- (B) sliding friction
- (C) rolling friction
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Ball bearing are small balls/sphere. In a ball, surface of contact is just a point resulting in very less rolling friction. Hence answer 'C' is correct and the objection is wrong /rejected.
Q115. Answer: C Same question: B-10 · C-65 · D-110
A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
- (A) exert large force on the ball
- (B) increase the force exerted by the ball on hands
- (C) decrease the rate of change of momentum
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q116. Answer: B Same question: B-11 · C-66 · D-111
Which among the following is a positively charged particle emitted by a radioactive element?
- (A) Beta ray
- (B) Alpha ray
- (C) Cathode ray
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Two protons and two neutrons are bound together to form an alpha particle. High-energy electrons are known as beta particles. Obviously alpha particle is positively charged due to the presence of proton while beta particle is negatively charged due to the presence of electrons. Cathode ray is a stream of electrons leaving the negative electrode (cathode) in a discharge tube…
Q117. Answer: A Same question: B-12 · C-67 · D-112
Centripetal force is responsible to
- (A) keep the body moving along the circular path
- (B) fly the object along a straight line
- (C) independent motion of the object in space
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: In a uniform circular motion, though the speed is constant but the direction is changing and as such velocity being a vector quantity, is changing. To change the direction / velocity, force is required which is called centripetal force. For example, if a stone tied to a string is rotated by a person, he has to hold the string tight i.e apply centripetal force otherwise, if…
Q118. Answer: C Same question: B-13 · C-68 · D-113
Which of the following energy changes involves frictional force?
- (A) Potential energy to sound energy
- (B) Chemical energy to heat energy
- (C) Kinetic energy to heat energy
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Energy conversion due to friction does not involve change in potential energy/ chemical energy. Even when an object is falling in air, its potential energy first gets converted into kinetic energy and then heat or sound etc. In battery, its chemical energy is converted into electrical energy as well as heat but friction has nothing to do in such conversion. Frictional…
Q119. Answer: B Same question: B-14 · C-69 · D-114
A bus is moving along a straight path and takes a sharp turn to the right side suddenly. The passengers sitting in the bus will
- (A) fall in the forward direction
- (B) bent towards left side
- (C) bent towards right side
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q120. Answer: C Same question: B-15 · C-70 · D-115
Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the string suitably. By doing so, he/she is adjusting
- (A) amplitude of sound
- (B) intensity of sound
- (C) frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: String length, diameter, density and tension determines the frequency in which it will vibrate. Since other three are fixed, it is the tension that sitarist tries to adjust to tune its natural frequency. And while playing the Sitar, he changes the effective length of the string by touching the string at different points with his finger. This is how we get different…
Q121. Answer: B Same question: B-16 · C-71 · D-86
A form of matter has no fixed shape but it has a fixed volume. An example of this form of matter is
- (A) krypton
- (B) kerosene
- (C) carbon steel
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Krypton is a gas and kerosene is liquid. While both don’t have fixed form, it is kerosene whose volume cannot be changed significantly with pressure / temperature whereas Krypton being a gas, its volume can be changed drastically with change of pressure / temperature. So, it is kerosene alone which has no fixed form but fixed volume. So the correct answer is 'B'. Objection…
Q122. Answer: A Same question: B-17 · C-72 · D-87
Some metal oxides react with acid as well as base to produce salt and water. They are known as amphoteric oxides. The examples of amphoteric oxides are
- (A) Al₂O₃ and ZnO
- (B) Al₂O₃ and CuO
- (C) CuO and ZnO
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Amphoteric oxides have both acidic and basic properties. The oxides of aluminum and zinc are good examples. On the other hand, CuO is basic in nature, it is not amphoteric. Hence answer 'A' is correct and the objection is wrong / rejected.
Q123. Answer: D Same question: B-18 · C-73 · D-88
Which gas contributes to global warming through its greenhouse effect?
- (A) Nitrous oxide
- (B) Methane
- (C) Carbon dioxide
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q124. Answer: A Same question: B-19 · C-74 · D-89
Acids react with metal carbonates to liberate ____ gas.
- (A) CO₂
- (B) CO
- (C) H₂
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q125. Answer: A Same question: B-20 · C-75 · D-90
Which acid is described as HOOCCOOH?
- (A) Oxalic acid
- (B) Acetic acid
- (C) Carbonic acid
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Questions 126–150
Q126. Answer: B Same question: B-21 · C-76 · D-91
You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively. Which of them will turn red litmus to blue?
- (A) Acid
- (B) Base
- (C) Distilled water
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q127. Answer: C Same question: B-22 · C-77 · D-92
The odour of acetic acid resembles that of
- (A) tomato
- (B) kerosene
- (C) vinegar
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q128. Answer: B Same question: B-23 · C-78 · D-93
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of dry litmus paper?
- (A) Blue litmus becomes dry in the presence of dry HCl gas.
- (B) No H₃O⁺ ions are present. Litmus changes colour only in the presence of H₃O⁺ ions.
- (C) HCl gas acts as a dehydrating agent.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The colour of litmus paper changes in the presence of ions like hydrogen (H+) also and not necessarily hydronium (H3O+) ions only. So option B is wrong. Option A is wrong since litmus paper colour need not be blue to start with. In fact dry HCL gas acts like dehydrating agent that is, it removes water which is crucial for forming hydrogen (H+) or hydronium (H3O+) ions.…
Q129. Answer: E Same question: B-24 · C-79 · D-94
Detect the odd one.
- (A) Setting of cement
- (B) Burning of coal
- (C) Ripening of fruit
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'E'. All are chemical changes and all are also exothermic. So there is no difference. Hence the answer option 'E' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q130. Answer: E Same question: B-25 · C-80 · D-95
Which of the following statements about diamond and graphite is true?
- (A) They have same crystal structure.
- (B) They have same degree of hardness.
- (C) They have same electrical conductivity.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Diamond and Graphite, both are known as the allotropes of carbon. but neither their crystalline structure nor their hardness are same. Carbon atoms in diamond form three dimensional tetrahedron structure while in graphite it is like hexagonal rings in a plane. Diamond is one of the hardest material while graphite is very soft. Similarly, diamond is poor conductor of…
Q131. Answer: B Same question: B-26 · C-51 · D-96
The stomata open or close due to change in the
- (A) protein composition of cells
- (B) amount of water in cells
- (C) position of nucleus in cells
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Due to increased transpiration pull during the day, water is absorbed by the roots and transferred through the xylem to various areas of the plant causing the guard cell to swell and become turgid. The stomatal pore is open as a result. The guard cell shrinks and becomes stiff at night because the roots absorb less water. Consequently, stomatal pores close. So the correct…
Q132. Answer: C Same question: B-27 · C-52 · D-97
Chlorophyll absorbs ____ wavelengths of the sunlight.
- (A) green and blue
- (B) green and red
- (C) red and blue
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Chlorophyll is a chemical photoreceptor that traps light for photosynthesis in plants. It absorbs light in the red (long wavelength) and the blue (short wavelength) regions of the visible light spectrum. Green light is not absorbed but reflected, making the plant appear green. Hence answer 'C' is correct and the objectionis wrong/rejected.
Q133. Answer: A Same question: B-28 · C-53 · D-98
Which of the following is not a correct match?
- (A) Thick, hard stem with branching near base : Tree
- (B) Weak stem which cannot stand upright : Creeper
- (C) Petiole : Attaches leaf to stem
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q134. Answer: B Same question: B-29 · C-54 · D-99
Water reaches great heights in trees because of suction pull caused by
- (A) absorption
- (B) transpiration
- (C) evaporation
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Transpiration is a process that involves loss of water vapour through the stomata of plants. The loss of water vapour from the plant cools the plant down when the weather is very hot, and water from the stem and roots moves upwards or is 'pulled' into the leaves. On the other hand, plants absorb water and minerals from the soil via their roots but water does not move upward…
Q135. Answer: C Same question: B-30 · C-55 · D-100
Which among the following is a character of chloroplast which makes them qualified to self-replication?
- (A) Presence of DNA only
- (B) Absence of RNA
- (C) Presence of both DNA and RNA
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Presence of both DNA & RNA in Chloroplast makes them qualified to self-replication. RNA primers are key to initiating DNA synthesis. They provide the initiation sequence necessary for DNA polymerase to synthesize new strands. So the correct answer is 'C'. Objection is wrong and hence rejected.
Q136. Answer: B Same question: B-1 · C-56 · D-101
The parts of the skeleton that are not as hard as bones and which can be bent are called as
- (A) carpals
- (B) cartilage
- (C) vertebrae
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The carpal bones are the eight small bones that make up the wrist (or carpus) that connects the hand to the forearm. These bones are hard and will break if bent. Cartilage on the other hand, is a strong, flexible connective tissue that protects your joints and bones. Ear is an example of cartilage. Hence answer 'B' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected.
Q137. Answer: C Same question: B-2 · C-57 · D-102
In lichen, a chlorophyll-containing partner, ____ live together.
- (A) fungus and a bacterium
- (B) alga and a virus
- (C) alga and a fungus
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q138. Answer: A Same question: B-3 · C-58 · D-103
Female Anopheles can be distinguished from female Culex because it sits
- (A) at an angle with substratum
- (B) parallel to the surface of substratum
- (C) at right angle to the surface of substratum
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'A'. At an angle around 45 degree but not right angle /90 degree. Hence the answer option 'A' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q139. Answer: B Same question: B-4 · C-59 · D-104
The most important cell type associated with the immunity of the body is
- (A) platelets
- (B) lymphocytes
- (C) RBCs
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q140. Answer: C Same question: B-5 · C-60 · D-105
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about muscles in human body?
- (A) Muscles work in pairs.
- (B) Muscles become shorter, stiffer and thicker when contracted.
- (C) Muscles can only push the bone.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: Muscles allow a person to move, speak, and chew. They control heartbeat, breathing, and digestion. Other seemingly unrelated functions, including temperature regulation and vision, also rely on the muscular system. Muscles work in pair and become shorter, stiffer and thicker when contracted. So all the options are correct except for 'C'. So the correct answer is 'C'.…
Q141. Answer: A Same question: B-34 · C-86 · D-123
In a code language, if FASTER is written as 2229212319 and MONK is written as 15161412, then how will GUIDE be written in the same language?
Correct answer (Series-A option A): 212219523
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q142. Answer: C Same question: B-35 · C-87 · D-124
A rectangle has an area 30 cm² and perimeter 26 cm. Its sides (in cm) are
Correct answer (Series-A option C): 10, 3
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q143. Answer: B Same question: B-36 · C-88 · D-125
A shopkeeper offers 10% discount on an item with marked price ₹400. If he charges 10% GST, then the final price of the item is
Correct answer (Series-A option B): ₹396
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q144. Answer: B Same question: B-37 · C-89 · D-116
Arrange the following words in logical and meaningful order :
1. Vice President
2. President
3. Speaker
4. Prime Minister
5. Members of the Parliament
Correct answer (Series-A option B): 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q145. Answer: A Same question: B-38 · C-90 · D-117
Reshma donates one-fourth of her property to a charity organization and divides the remaining property equally among her three children. The part of property each child gets is
Correct answer (Series-A option A): one-fourth
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q146. Answer: E Same question: B-39 · C-81 · D-118
Which of the following statements is false?
- (A) Every square is a rectangle.
- (B) Every rhombus is a parallelogram.
- (C) Every square is a rhombus.
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: The correct answer is option 'E'. Every square is a rectangle and also rhombus. Every rhombus is a parallelogram. So all statements are correct and none is false. Hence the answer option 'E' is correct and objection is rejected.
Q147. Answer: B Same question: B-40 · C-82 · D-119
In a family of some persons, B says that R is the daughter of my sister A, who is the only daughter of T. X is the child of T and Z, who is the grandmother of H. K is the mother of M, who is the only sister of H. X is unmarried. If S is the spouse of A, how is K related to S?
- (A) Sister-in-law
- (B) Wife of brother-in-law
- (C) Brother-in-law
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: K is the mother of M and H. That means K is female hence option C is ruled out. Z is the grandmother of H. So K is either daughter / daughter-in-law of T&Z. But A is the only daughter of T(&Z) so K istheir daughter -in-law. Since X is unmarried, so husband of K is another son of T&Z. Let's name it Y who is brother of A. Since S is spouse (husband) of A (female) who is…
Q148. Answer: E Same question: B-31 · C-83 · D-120
How many words, no matter if they are meaningless, can be formed by the letters of the word ‘DIARY’?
- (A) 5
- (B) 10
- (C) 24
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
Q149. Answer: B Same question: B-32 · C-84 · D-121
Select the missing number from the given alternatives :
| 44 | 49 | 37 |
| 52 | ? | 41 |
| 58 | 35 | 53 |
- (A) 56
- (B) 77
- (C) 66
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: In this problem, pattern has to be found to solve it. In the first column, all the figures are even and in the last column, they are all prime number. In the middle column, both the figures are odd and also divisible by 7 i.e. HCF is 7. So the missing number should also be odd and divisible by 7. Hence answer 'B' is correct and the objection is wrong/rejected
Q150. Answer: C Same question: B-33 · C-85 · D-122
Find the missing number in the given series following the same pattern :
15, 20, 32, 62, 118, 248, ?
- (A) 322
- (B) 368
- (C) 428
- (D) More than one of the above
- (E) None of the above
BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final
How to use this solved paper
- Attempt the full paper above in 2 hours with negative marking, covering the highlighted answers first.
- Score yourself using the Series-A key above (convert via the B/C/D mapping column if your booklet differs).
- For every wrong answer, read the BPSC remark — then revise the linked static note.
- Re-attempt only wrong + guessed items after 7 days.
- Compare your score with the UR/category cut-off on the BPSC hub on CrackTarget.
Attempt BPSC 68th as a timed mock
Re-attempt this paper and newer BPSC-pattern full mocks with correct negative marking on CrackTarget.
Take a BPSC full mock →Frequently Asked Questions
When was the BPSC 68th Prelims held?
The 68th Combined (Preliminary) Competitive Examination was held on 12.02.2023, as printed on BPSC’s final answer key.
How many questions were deleted in BPSC 68th Prelims?
As per BPSC’s final answer key, 1 question(s) were deleted (Series-A number(s): 22).
What was the BPSC 68th Prelims cut-off?
The Unreserved cut-off was 91.00; 3,590 candidates were declared successful for Mains. See the CrackTarget BPSC cut-off page for all categories.
Is the answer key on this page official?
Yes. Answer letters, cross-series mapping, deletions and remarks are taken from BPSC’s FINAL ANSWER KEY (General Studies) for the 68th CCE Prelims.
Does this page include the BPSC 68th question text?
Yes. All 150 Series-A questions are reproduced from BPSC’s question booklet, each followed by the official final answer and the Commission’s remark.
Last updated October 2026. Source: Bihar Public Service Commission — 68th CCE Prelims FINAL ANSWER KEY: General Studies (exam date 12.02.2023); result/cut-off from the BPSC Prelims result notice. Question text: BPSC 68th CCE Prelims Series-A question booklet (General Studies).

