Q1. Answer: D Same question: B-38 · C-68 · D-117

Which of the following technologies will be enabled by the 5G mobile communication networks?

1. Internet of Things

2. Edge Computing

3. Network Slicing

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 2 and 3
3. (C) Only 1 and 3
4. (D) 1, 2 and 3

BPSC remark: All statement are correct

Q2. Answer: A Same question: B-39 · C-69 · D-118

Match List–I with List–II :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
2. (B) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
3. (C) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1
4. (D) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4

BPSC remark: (a) Cassini Huygens matches with (2) (Saturn and its rings) because it is a space research mission by NASA, ESA & ISA to send space probe to study the planet Saturn & its system. (b)Juno matches with (1) (Jupiter) it is a mission, designed to improve our understanding of the Solar System’s beginnings by revealing the origin and evolution of Jupiter. (c) Artemis matches with…

Q3. Answer: C Same question: B-40 · C-70 · D-119

Match List–I with List–II :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4
2. (B) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
3. (C) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
4. (D) a–4, b–1, c–3, d–2

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q4. Answer: C Same question: B-41 · C-71 · D-120

Consider the following statements :

1. Taeniasis is an intestinal infection caused by three species of tapeworm— Taenia solium, Taenia saginata and Taenia asiatica.

2. When cysts develop in the brain, the condition is referred to as neuro-cysticercosis (NCC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (A) Only 1
2. (B) Only 2
3. (C) Both 1 and 2
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: Human being when acts as a primary host, develops the disease Taeniasis by Taeniasolium, Taeniasaginataand Taenia. asiaticaand when acts as a secondary host, develops Neuro- cysticercosis. Hence, the option‘C’ is correct.

Q5. Answer: D Same question: B-42 · C-72 · D-91

Which of the following are computer languages?

1. Cobra

2. Python

3. Squirrel

4. Java

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 3 and 4
3. (C) Only 1, 2 and 3
4. (D) All of the above

BPSC remark: ‘Cobra’ is a high-level, object- oriented programming language used for general programming purposes, ‘Python’ is a high-level general purpose programming language, ‘Squirrel’ is a programming language similar to ‘Lua’, but uses a ‘C’ like syntax and finally ‘Java’ is a popular programming language created in 1995 and is being used for mobile applications. Hence all four…

Q6. Answer: D Same question: B-43 · C-73 · D-92

What is the full form of GPT in ChatGPT, recently seen in the news?

1. (A) Glutamic Pyruvic Transaminase
2. (B) GUID Partition Table
3. (C) Grooved Pegboard Test
4. (D) Generative Pre-Trained Transformer

BPSC remark: GPT, in Chat GPT, stands for ‘Generative Pretrained Transformer’. Hence (D) is the correct option.

Q7. Answer: C Same question: B-44 · C-74 · D-93

Which of the following are not the tastes of the tongue?

1. Sweet

2. Bitter

3. Salty

4. Spicy

5. Umami

6. Sour

7. Pungent

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) 2, 5 and 7
2. (B) 1, 3 and 4
3. (C) 4 and 7
4. (D) 3 and 6

BPSC remark: Tongue of human being has different types of papillae associated with taste buds and are responsible for detecting the tastes like – !. Sweet, 2. Bitter, 3. Salty, 5. Umami and 6. Sour. They do not detect the ‘Spicy’ taste (Option-4) and the ‘Pungent’ (Option-7) which is associated with smell. Hence option ‘C’ is correct

Q8. Answer: C Same question: B-45 · C-75 · D-94

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Anorexia : Sleep disorder

2. Insomnia : Eating disorder

3. Dyspnoea : Shortness of breath

4. Anosmia : Partial or full loss of smell

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 2 and 3
3. (C) Only 3 and 4
4. (D) All of the above

BPSC remark: 1. Anorexia is associated with ‘Eating disorder’, 2. Insomnia – Sleep disorder, 3. Dyspnoea- Shortness of breath and 4. Ansomia is associated with ‘Partial or full loss of smell’. Only options 3 and 4 are correctly matched. Hence, the option ‘C’ is correct.

Q9. Answer: B Same question: B-46 · C-76 · D-95

In the universe, what are pulsars?

1. (A) A group of stars
2. (B) Rotating neutron stars
3. (C) Explosion of a star
4. (D) Radio waves emitted by a star

BPSC remark: Pulsars are neutron stars which rotate on their axis. The rotation creates the pulses. They may or may not be created by the supernovas.

Q10. Answer: C Same question: B-47 · C-77 · D-96

In the context of lab-grown diamonds (LGDs), what is used as a diamond seed?

1. (A) White sapphire
2. (B) Moissanite
3. (C) Graphite
4. (D) Cubic zirconia (CZ)

BPSC remark: NO Change. Diamond structure can be produced by graphite only by applying temperature of 3000k and pressure of 125000 atmosphere. Catalysts such as chromium, Iron or platinum may be use. Ref: Advances inorganic chemistry by cotton & wilkinson, 2nd Ed, page 296 White Sapphire is Aluminium Oxide. It cannot form diamond which is pure carbon.

Q11. Answer: D Same question: B-48 · C-78 · D-97

What is the ‘fibre’ used to make bulletproof jackets?

1. (A) Nylon
2. (B) Terylene
3. (C) Tweed
4. (D) Kevlar

BPSC remark: Kevlar is a polymer of p-phenylene- diamine and Terephthalic acid. The fibre produced has ten times greater tensile strength than steel.

Q12. Answer: C Same question: B-49 · C-79 · D-98

What is/are the full form(s) of HMX?

1. High Melting Explosive

2. High-Density Monoatomic Xenon

3. Hedge Monetizing Xeno-currency

4. Her Majesty’s Explosive

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) 1 and 2
2. (B) 2 and 3
3. (C) Only 1
4. (D) 1 and 4

BPSC remark: No Change. Full form of HMX is high melting explosive. Its chemical composition has many variations. You can give any name to HMX. This does not change its basic character.

Q13. Answer: D Same question: B-50 · C-80 · D-99

What is the name of Tesla’s humanoid robot launched in October 2022?

1. (A) Sophia
2. (B) Atlas
3. (C) Pepper
4. (D) Optimus

BPSC remark: Tesla CEO Elon Musk released AI- powered humanoid robot, ‘Optimus’, engaging in various activities in October 2022. Hence (D) is the correct option.

Q14. Answer: A Same question: B-51 · C-51 · D-100

What is the ‘Manhattan Project’?

1. (A) A research and development undertaking that produced the first nuclear weapons
2. (B) One of the largest art auctions of the world
3. (C) A real estate project in New York City
4. (D) A famous theme park

BPSC remark: ‘The Manhattan Project has a top secret research and development undertaking, by USA, to make atomic bomb during World War II. Hence (A) is the correct option.

Q15. Answer: B Same question: B-52 · C-52 · D-101

The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of the object should be

1. (A) at the focus
2. (B) at the centre of curvature
3. (C) between the focus and centre of curvature
4. (D) beyond the centre of curvature

BPSC remark: If an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a Concave mirror, then the image formed is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object.

Q16. Answer: A Same question: B-53 · C-53 · D-102

A photoelectric cell is a device which

1. (A) converts light energy into electric energy
2. (B) converts electric energy into light energy
3. (C) stores light energy
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: A photo electric cell such as solar cell or photo transistor converts light energy into electric energy.

Q17. Answer: D Same question: B-54 · C-54 · D-103

The amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution/solvent is known as _____ in Chemistry.

1. (A) composition of solute
2. (B) concentration of solvent
3. (C) concentration of solute
4. (D) concentration of solution

BPSC remark: The amount of solute present per unit volume is called "Concentration of Solution" Ref:- Principles of physical chemistry by Puri, Sharma & Pathania, 34th ED, 1993. page 748.

Q18. Answer: A Same question: B-55 · C-55 · D-104

How do COVID vaccines stimulate an immune response?

1. (A) By introducing live attenuated SARS-CoV-2 virus
2. (B) By introducing a real SARS-CoV-2 virus
3. (C) By introducing a harmless piece of SARS-CoV-2 virus
4. (D) By introducing antibodies against SARS-CoV-2 virus

BPSC remark: No Change. Immune responses can be stimulated in host by introducing live, attenuated pathogen i.e SARS CoV2 virus. Option ‘B’ and option ‘D’ are not associated with the mechanism of stimulating immune response by covid vaccines. The statement made in option ‘C’ is unscientific. WHO recommended two main types of SARS CoV2 vaccines- 1. mRNA vaccines 2. Vector vaccines.…

Q19. Answer: D Same question: B-26 · C-56 · D-105

Which of the following liquids is a bad conductor of electricity?

1. (A) Salted water
2. (B) Orange juice
3. (C) Lemon juice
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: A salt water is completely ionized in water. Hence it is a good conductor of electricity. Orange and Lemon juice contain various salts and acids and are therefore good conductors of electricity. 'D' is the only option for a bad conductor.

Q20. Answer: A Same question: B-27 · C-57 · D-106

The DNA double helix structure was discovered by

1. (A) James Watson and Francis Crick
2. (B) Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins
3. (C) Linus Pauling
4. (D) Gregor Mendel

BPSC remark: James Watson and Francis crick received Nobel Prize, 1943 for their model of DNA double helix structure.

Q21. Answer: C Same question: B-28 · C-58 · D-107

Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the Moon would

1. (A) have different accelerations
2. (B) undergo a change in their inertia
3. (C) have same velocity at any instant
4. (D) experience forces of same magnitude

BPSC remark: The Question does not give the parameters for height and time. Assuming that both objects are dropped at the same time from the same reasonable height, they will have "The same velocity at any instant" as they fall freely near the surface of the moon.

Q22. Answer: C Same question: B-29 · C-59 · D-108

How do vector vaccines work to provide immunity?

1. (A) By introducing a weakened or inactivated virus into the body
2. (B) By directly attacking and destroying pathogens in the body
3. (C) By placing the virus in a modified version of a different virus
4. (D) By entering directly into the cells and enabling them to create spike proteins

BPSC remark: Vector vaccine refers to the introduction of viral gene into a harmless virus (adeuo virus) i.e. Modified version of another virus, which is then introduced in the host body to stimulate immune response. Hence option 'C' is correct. Option 'A' and 'B' are not related to vector vaccines. Option 'D' is one of the principles of vaccines against SARS "- COV-2 but no vector was…

Q23. Answer: C Same question: B-30 · C-60 · D-109

The process that continually adds new crust is

1. (A) subduction
2. (B) earthquake
3. (C) seafloor spreading
4. (D) convection

BPSC remark: New crust is formed when a crack develops in the middle of ocean floor and lava flow takes place. Research on reversal of magnetic poles has revealed sea floor spreading has occurred approx. 10 million year interval in the past.

Q24. Answer: C Same question: B-31 · C-61 · D-110

The theory that states “pieces of the Earth’s crust are in constant, slow motion driven by movement in the mantle” is called

1. (A) the theory of continental drift
2. (B) the theory of Pangaea
3. (C) the theory of plate tectonics
4. (D) the theory of plate boundaries

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q25. Answer: A Same question: B-32 · C-62 · D-111

What is the expanded form of the term ‘mRNA’ that has been widely discussed since the beginning of the pandemic?

1. (A) Messenger Ribonucleic Acid
2. (B) Mutant Ribonucleic Acid
3. (C) Modified Ribonucleic Acid
4. (D) Mnemonic Ribonucleic Acid

BPSC remark: mRNA stands for messenger RiboNucleic Acid and is the single stranded molecule that carries the instructions to make proteins. During pandemic mRNA is detected by RT-PCR for diagnosis of disease.

Q26. Answer: B Same question: B-33 · C-63 · D-112

An AC current can be produced by

1. (A) choke coil
2. (B) dynamo
3. (C) transformer
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: An AC current is produces by a Dynamo which is called AC Dynamo or Alternator. This is done by rotating a coil or Armature within the magnetic field created by field coils. If a DC current is required it can be supplied by a commutator in a DC Dynamo.

Q27. Answer: B Same question: B-34 · C-64 · D-113

Current density is

1. (A) a scalar quantity
2. (B) a vector quantity
3. (C) dimensionless
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: Electric current is defined as surface integral of current density i.e. I= 𝐽 . 𝑑𝑠 Hence current density ( ) is a 𝑗 vector quantity.

Q28. Answer: B Same question: B-35 · C-65 · D-114

What is the basis of most useful classification of medications in medical chemistry?

1. (A) Pharmacological effect
2. (B) Molecular targets
3. (C) Chemical structure
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q29. Answer: D Same question: B-36 · C-66 · D-115

Which of the following slows down the reaction rate?

1. (A) Catalytic promoter
2. (B) Homogeneous catalyst
3. (C) Heterogeneous catalyst
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q30. Answer: B Same question: B-37 · C-67 · D-116

Input and output nerves meet at

1. (A) liver
2. (B) central nervous system
3. (C) heart
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: The central nervous system has four parts, namely, Brain, Spinal cord, Nerve and Neurons. The Input and output nerves meet at several places, particularly in the spinal cord. They do not meet in the liver or the heart as they do not form part of nervous system.

Q31. Answer: A Same question: B-62 · C-97 · D-141

In the context of ‘Shipwreck Tourism’, shipwrecks in Indian waters have been explored at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals and Grande Island. Where are these locations?

1. (A) Off the coast of Goa
2. (B) Off the coast of Lakshadweep
3. (C) Off the coast of Tamil Nadu
4. (D) Off the coast of Odisha

BPSC remark: In the context of 'Shiwreck Tourism", it has been explored at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals and Grande Island off the Coast of Goa.

Q32. Answer: B Same question: B-63 · C-98 · D-142

The G20 members represent

1. around 85% of the global GDP

2. about 50% of the global trade

3. about two-thirds of the world population

Which of the above statistics is/are correct?

1. (A) Only 1
2. (B) Only 1 and 3
3. (C) 1, 2 and 3
4. (D) Only 1 and 2

BPSC remark: NO Change. Statement 1 and 3 are correct in context of G20 members.

Q33. Deleted by BPSC Same question: B-64 · C-99 · D-143

Who is the Head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group?

1. (A) Sergei Shoigu
2. (B) Yevgeny Prigozhin
3. (C) Aleksandr Lukashenko
4. (D) Volodymyr Zelenskyy

BPSC remark: Yevgeny Prigozhin died on 23.08.2023 and this exam was held on 29.09.2023. So on the date of examination no one was the Head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group. Since no option is correct. Hence question is deleted.

Q34. Answer: C Same question: B-65 · C-100 · D-144

The Global Gender Gap Report is released by

1. (A) the World Bank
2. (B) the UN Women
3. (C) the World Economic Forum
4. (D) the UNDP

BPSC remark: The Global Gender Gap report is released by the world Economic Forum.

Q35. Answer: A Same question: B-66 · C-101 · D-145

Which one of the following statements regarding Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom is correct?

1. (A) She reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96 years.
2. (B) She reigned for 68 years and died at the age of 94 years.
3. (C) She reigned for 72 years and died at the age of 92 years.
4. (D) She reigned for 66 years and died at the age of 90 years.

BPSC remark: Queen Elizabeth II reigned for 70 years (1952-2022) and died at the age of 96 years (1926-2022).

Q36. Answer: B Same question: B-67 · C-102 · D-146

What was the theme of DefExpo– 2022, held in Gujarat?

1. (A) India : The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub
2. (B) Path to Pride
3. (C) Synergy for Defence
4. (D) Aatmanirbharta

BPSC remark: Path to Pride was the theme of Def Expo. 2022 held in Gujarat.

Q37. Answer: D Same question: B-68 · C-103 · D-147

The three-day celebration of Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in which country?

1. (A) Chile
2. (B) Nepal
3. (C) Germany
4. (D) Myanmar

BPSC remark: Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in Myanmar.

Q38. Answer: D Same question: B-69 · C-104 · D-148

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘White House’ :

1. The address of the White House is 1800 Pennsylvania Avenue.

2. It is the official residence and workplace of the President of USA.

3. On November 1, 1800, John Adams became the first President to take residence in the building.

4. It is a symbol of American Democracy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. (A) 1, 3 and 4
2. (B) Only 2 and 3
3. (C) Only 3 and 4
4. (D) 2, 3 and 4

BPSC remark: White House is a symbol of American Democracy because the President of U.S.A is an essential part of American Constitution. The congress and senate meet at Capitol Hill, but they cannot function properly without the president, whose office is at White House.

Q39. Answer: C Same question: B-70 · C-105 · D-149

‘Net Metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting

1. (A) the installation of CNG kits in motorcars
2. (B) the installation of water meters in urban households
3. (C) a billing mechanism for solar energy by consumers for the electricity they add to the grid
4. (D) the use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households

BPSC remark: Net Metering is an electricity billing mechanism for solar energy by consumers which is added to the grid.

Q40. Answer: A Same question: B-71 · C-106 · D-150

Match List–I with List–II :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1
2. (B) a–2, b–4, c–3, d–1
3. (C) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
4. (D) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–1

BPSC remark: Combination of Red and Blue form magenta and teal is the combination of blue, green and white. So correct choice is only (A).

Q41. Answer: D Same question: B-72 · C-107 · D-121

What is the name of the deep-sea submersible that imploded during an underwater voyage to the Titanic wreckage?

1. (A) Alvin
2. (B) Falcon
3. (C) Trident
4. (D) Titan

BPSC remark: The name of imploded deep Sea submersible was Titan.

Q42. Answer: B Same question: B-73 · C-108 · D-122

Match List–I with List–II :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4, e–5
2. (B) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–5, e–1
3. (C) a–5, b–3, c–2, d–4, e–1
4. (D) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4, e–5

BPSC remark: Correctly matched is option 'B'.

Q43. Answer: C Same question: B-74 · C-109 · D-123

Where did the former President of the USA give his interview recently?

1. (A) Rome
2. (B) Sarajevo
3. (C) Athens
4. (D) Amsterdam

BPSC remark: No Change. The most recent interview was given by Barrack Obama at Athens on 26- 06-2023 earlier interviews do not count. Trump gave the interview on January 06. Obama gave it more recently on June 26.

Q44. Answer: D Same question: B-75 · C-110 · D-124

In the context of sports, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Flushing Meadows : French Open

2. Venus Rosewater Dish : Wimbledon Trophy (Women)

3. Roland Garros : US Open

4. Australian Open (Women) : Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) 1 and 2
2. (B) 2 and 3
3. (C) 3 and 4
4. (D) 2 and 4

BPSC remark: Statement 2 and 4 are correctly matched pairs.

Q45. Answer: C Same question: B-76 · C-81 · D-125

The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s how many languages?

1. (A) 40
2. (B) 233
3. (C) 576
4. (D) 984

BPSC remark: There are 576 Languages in the country according to the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI).

Q46. Answer: A Same question: B-77 · C-82 · D-126

Which State Government launched the State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC), proposed by the national action for the protection of vultures in India?

1. (A) Tamil Nadu
2. (B) Sikkim
3. (C) Assam
4. (D) Meghalaya

BPSC remark: Tamil Nadu launched the State-Level committee for Vulture conservation (SLCVC) for the protection of Vulture in India.

Q47. Answer: A Same question: B-78 · C-83 · D-127

Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouria emys), one of the largest tortoise species in mainland Asia, were recently released into which National Park of India?

1. (A) Ntangki National Park
2. (B) Periyar National Park
3. (C) Pench National Park
4. (D) Khangchendzonga National Park

BPSC remark: Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouriaerhys) were recently released into Ntangki National Park.

Q48. Answer: A Same question: B-79 · C-84 · D-128

Which country has recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India?

1. (A) USA
2. (B) Australia
3. (C) Germany
4. (D) Russia

BPSC remark: Germany issued the statement in August 2022 U.S.A reiterated its position in july 2023 to say that Arunachal Pradesh is an integral part of India.

Q49. Answer: A Same question: B-80 · C-85 · D-129

India’s Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won which medal in Men’s 10 m Air Rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo?

1. (A) Gold
2. (B) Silver
3. (C) Bronze
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: India’s Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won Gold medal in Men’s 10 m Air Rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo.

Q50. Answer: A Same question: B-81 · C-86 · D-130

The National Education Policy, 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from which grade onwards?

1. (A) Grade 6
2. (B) Grade 8
3. (C) Grade 10
4. (D) Grade 12

BPSC remark: NEP 2020 originally stated that integration should start form Grade 6. All changes were made subsequently in different years.

Q51. Answer: B Same question: B-82 · C-87 · D-131

India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with which country?

1. (A) UAE
2. (B) Australia
3. (C) USA
4. (D) UK

BPSC remark: India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with Australia.

Q52. Answer: C Same question: B-83 · C-88 · D-132

The Plain Language Act was passed by which of the following countries recently which requires Government officials to use simple and easily understandable English language in official documents and websites?

1. (A) Australia
2. (B) Ireland
3. (C) New Zealand
4. (D) Germany

BPSC remark: The Plain Language Act was passed by the New Zealand recently.

Q53. Answer: C Same question: B-84 · C-89 · D-133

Tillyardembi Fossils of the world’s first plant pollinators, called Tillyardembiids, were discovered recently in which country?

1. (A) Greece
2. (B) India
3. (C) Russia
4. (D) China

BPSC remark: Fossils of the oldest known insect and the world’s first plant pollinators called Tillyardembiids was discovered recently in Russia. Tillyardembiids are earwig-like insects. The specimens found in Russia were estimated to be around 280 million years old.

Q54. Answer: C Same question: B-85 · C-90 · D-134

The ‘Lisbon Declaration’, which made headlines, is associated with the conservation of which entity?

1. (A) Air
2. (B) Mountains
3. (C) Oceans
4. (D) Freshwater glaciers

BPSC remark: The ‘Lisbon Declaration’ is associated with the conservation of Oceans.

Q55. Answer: B Same question: B-56 · C-91 · D-135

Which of the following animals was not known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilization?

1. (A) Bull
2. (B) Horse
3. (C) Elephant
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: No Change. Horse was not known to the Indus Valley people. Both Dr R.S. Sharma and Dr. Romila Thapar have stated that it is not confirmed that the bones found in Surkotda are of a horse or an Ass.

Q56. Answer: C Same question: B-57 · C-92 · D-136

Which of the following is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

1. (A) Qutb Minar
2. (B) Red Fort
3. (C) India Gate
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: India Gate is not a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Q57. Answer: C Same question: B-58 · C-93 · D-137

The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of

1. (A) England
2. (B) Switzerland
3. (C) Ireland
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q58. Answer: B Same question: B-59 · C-94 · D-138

Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in

1. (A) 1974
2. (B) 1975
3. (C) 1976
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q59. Answer: B Same question: B-60 · C-95 · D-139

Which among the following currencies is the costliest?

1. (A) Euro
2. (B) Pound Sterling
3. (C) US Dollar
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: NO Change. Objection is meaningless.

Q60. Deleted by BPSC Same question: B-61 · C-96 · D-140

Bihar Government has planned to make Bihar State ‘pollution-free’ by reducing carbon emissions by which year?

1. (A) 2022
2. (B) 2024
3. (C) 2030
4. (D) 2047

BPSC remark: The Govt. Of Bihar signed an MOU with UN Environment Programme to make Bihar Pollution free from 2040. This year is not mentioned in any option. Hence deleted.

Q61. Answer: C Same question: B-93 · C-125 · D-18

In Indian art, the construction of ‘Stupa’, ‘Chaitya’ and ‘Vihara’ is related to which of the following?

1. (A) Ajivika sect
2. (B) Vaishnava sect
3. (C) Buddhism
4. (D) Shaiva sect

BPSC remark: Stupa, Chaitya and Vihara are all associated with Buddhism.

Q62. Answer: C Same question: B-94 · C-126 · D-19

In the context of Indian handicrafts, what is ‘Sujini’ in Bihar?

1. (A) A type of glassware
2. (B) A metal craft
3. (C) A type of embroidery
4. (D) A type of clay pottery

BPSC remark: Sujini is a type of embroidery.

Q63. Answer: C Same question: B-95 · C-127 · D-20

Consider the following statements regarding the Vikramshila University in Bihar :

1. It was located in the present-day Banka district of Bihar.

2. It was established by King Gopala I of the Pala dynasty.

3. The ‘Vajrayana’ sect of Buddhism flourished here.

4. Other subjects like Astronomy, Logic, Law, Grammar and Philosophy were also taught here.

Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

1. (A) 2 and 3
2. (B) 1 and 4
3. (C) 1 and 2
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: Vikramshila University is located in Bhagalpur and not in Banka district. It was established by Pal dynasty and not by Gopala I. These two incorrtect statements are covered by option 'C'

Q64. Answer: C Same question: B-96 · C-128 · D-1

Consider the following statements : The arrival of Babur into India led to the

1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent

2. introduction of arch and dome in the region’s architecture

3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region

4. introduction of cannons in warfare

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) 1, 2 and 3
3. (C) 3 and 4
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: NO Change. Gun powder existed in India before the arrived of Babar. Also arch and dome existed before him. Hence only option 'C' is correct. Question mentions gunpowder while candidate mentions cannons. They are two different things as gunpowder is also used in guns and explosives, Answer of BPSC is correct.

Q65. Answer: B Same question: B-97 · C-129 · D-2

Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal period?

1. (A) Calicut
2. (B) Surat
3. (C) Cambay
4. (D) Broach

BPSC remark: Surat was referred as Bab al- Makkah in Mughal times as it was a departure point for pilgrims travelling for Hajj.

Q66. Answer: C Same question: B-98 · C-130 · D-3

‘Ashta Pradhan’ was a Council of Ministers

1. (A) in the Gupta administration
2. (B) in the Chola administration
3. (C) in the Maratha administration
4. (D) in the Vijayanagara administration

BPSC remark: Ashtapradhan was the name given to the eight ministers/advisors of Shivaji.

Q67. Answer: C Same question: B-99 · C-111 · D-4

The painting of ‘Bodhisattva Padmapani’ is located at

1. (A) Bagh
2. (B) Ellora
3. (C) Ajanta
4. (D) Badami

BPSC remark: Painting of Bodhisattva Padmapaniis a mural painting in the Ajanta Cave 1.

Q68. Answer: D Same question: B-100 · C-112 · D-5

Consider the following statements :

1. Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign of Harsha.

2. Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (A) Only 1
2. (B) Only 2
3. (C) Both 1 and 2
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: Statements 1 & 2 are incorrect.

Q69. Answer: A Same question: B-101 · C-113 · D-6

Match List–I with List–II :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
2. (B) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
3. (C) a–3, b–2, c–4, d–1
4. (D) a–1, b–4, c–3, d–2

BPSC remark: The correct match between List 1 & 2 is a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3.

Q70. Answer: C Same question: B-102 · C-114 · D-7

Who among the following introduced the Persian festival Nowruz in India?

1. (A) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
2. (B) Alauddin Khilji
3. (C) Balban
4. (D) Iltutmish

BPSC remark: Balban introduced many Iranian practices at his Court, including Nowruz.

Q71. Answer: A Same question: B-103 · C-115 · D-8

Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis made devotional religion popular in

1. (A) Northern India
2. (B) Southern India
3. (C) Eastern India
4. (D) Western India

BPSC remark: Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis popularized devotional cult in Northern India.

Q72. Answer: C Same question: B-104 · C-116 · D-9

Consider the following statements regarding Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 :

1. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies.

2. It laid stress on female education and vocational training.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (A) Only 1
2. (B) Only 2
3. (C) Both 1 and 2
4. (D) Neither 1 nor 2

BPSC remark: Both statements 1 & 2 are found in wood's dispatch of 1854.

Q73. Answer: C Same question: B-105 · C-117 · D-10

The Maithili language was started to develop during the reign of which of the following?

1. (A) Chero dynasty
2. (B) Oiniwar dynasty
3. (C) Karnat dynasty
4. (D) Pithipatis

BPSC remark: Maithili language was developed Karnat Dynasty. Other options are wrong.

Q74. Answer: A Same question: B-86 · C-118 · D-11

Which city served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha during the early Vedic period?

1. (A) Rajagriha
2. (B) Campa
3. (C) Vaishali
4. (D) Pataliputra

BPSC remark: Rajagriha was capital of Magadh kingdom. Patliputra later became capital of Magadh empire. Samrajya in Hindi means empire and is not a correct translation of Kingdom.

Q75. Answer: D Same question: B-87 · C-119 · D-12

Which of the following statements about the Vernacular Press Act is/are correct?

1. It was enacted by Lord Lytton.

2. It came to be known as a ‘Gagging Act’.

3. The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 2 and 3
3. (C) Only 1
4. (D) 1, 2 and 3

BPSC remark: Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Q76. Answer: D Same question: B-88 · C-120 · D-13

Which of the following statements about Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 are correct?

1. It was the first step that bifurcated Central and Provincial finances.

2. Provincial Governments were empowered to administer certain services.

3. It attempted to rectify existing imparity.

4. It focussed on the actual needs of the Provinces.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
3. (C) Only 2, 3 and 4
4. (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

BPSC remark: No Change. All four statements correctly describe Lord Mayo's Resolution of 1870.

Q77. Answer: B Same question: B-89 · C-121 · D-14

Nitisara, an early book of politics, was written by

1. (A) Kautilya
2. (B) Kamandaka
3. (C) Charaka
4. (D) None of them

BPSC remark: Kamandaka was the author of Nitisara.

Q78. Answer: A Same question: B-90 · C-122 · D-15

Futuhat-i-Alamgiriwas written by

1. (A) Ishwardas Nagar
2. (B) Bhimsen
3. (C) Haridas
4. (D) None of them

BPSC remark: Futuhat-e-Alamgiri was written by Ishwar Das Nagar.

Q79. Answer: B Same question: B-91 · C-123 · D-16

According to Chinese source, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri Lanka, sent a missionary to which of the following Gupta Kings for permission to build a Buddhist temple at Gaya?

1. (A) Chandragupta I
2. (B) Samudragupta
3. (C) Chandragupta II
4. (D) None of them

BPSC remark: Meghavarman of Sri Lanka sent an emissary to Samudragupta seeking permission to construct a temple at Bodh Gaya.

Q80. Answer: A Same question: B-92 · C-124 · D-17

When was Bihar first separated from the Bengal Presidency under the British-ruled India?

1. (A) 1912
2. (B) 1936
3. (C) 1947
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: Bihar was first separated from Bengal Presidency in 1912.

Q81. Answer: D Same question: B-111 · C-140 · D-36

Consider the following statements :

1. Lake Victoria is the third largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area.

2. It is one of the great lakes of Africa.

3. It is bordered by four countries—Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda and Kenya.

4. The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile River, which exits the lake near Jinja, Uganda.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

1. (A) 1 and 2
2. (B) 2 and 4
3. (C) 3 and 4
4. (D) 1 and 3

BPSC remark: Lake Victoria is one of the great lakes of Africa and the only outflow is through river Nile. But statements 1 and 3 are wrong. it is the 2nd largest, not 3rd largest fresh water lake. Besides, it is not bordered by Rwanda. Hence Option 'D' is correct.

Q82. Answer: D Same question: B-112 · C-141 · D-37

Consider the following statements regarding ‘heat wave’ :

1. Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30 °C or more for plains.

2. Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40 °C or more for hilly regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (A) Both 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 1
3. (C) Only 2
4. (D) Neither 1 nor 2

BPSC remark: Heat wave is considered at 40° in Plains and 30° in Hilly reasons. Hence both options (1) & (2) are wrong.

Q83. Answer: A Same question: B-113 · C-142 · D-38

Match List–I with List–II :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–1
2. (B) a–1, b–2, c–4, d–3
3. (C) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
4. (D) a–1, b–4, c–2, d–3

BPSC remark: Only this option matches List I with List II.

Q84. Answer: A Same question: B-114 · C-143 · D-39

The emirates of UAE are

1. (A) Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah
2. (B) Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Jeddah, Kuwait, Bahrain, Umm Al-Quwain
3. (C) Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah, Riyadh, Dammam, Taif, Dubai
4. (D) Sharjah, Abu Dhabi, Ajman, Fujairah, Dubai, Bahrain, Kuwait

BPSC remark: Only this option lists all emirates of UAE correctly.

Q85. Answer: D Same question: B-115 · C-144 · D-40

The river Subarnarekha originates near which of the following villages?

1. (A) Ormanjhi
2. (B) Mandar
3. (C) Hehal
4. (D) Nagri

BPSC remark: River Subarnarekha originates near village Nagri.

Q86. Answer: A Same question: B-116 · C-145 · D-21

Which of the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries are in Bihar?

1. Valmiki National Park

2. Dudhwa National Park

3. Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary

4. Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) 1 and 4
2. (B) 2 and 3
3. (C) 1 and 3
4. (D) 2 and 4

BPSC remark: Serial no. 1 & 4 are in Bihar. No. 2 is in UP and No. 3 is in Rajasthan.

Q87. Answer: D Same question: B-117 · C-146 · D-22

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Gangetic Dolphin’ :

1. The Gangetic River Dolphin has been categorized as ‘endangered’ under the IUCN’s Red List.

2. It does not have a crystalline eye lens rendering it effectively blind.

3. Navigation and hunting are carried out using echolocation.

4. It has been recognized as India’s National Aquatic Animal.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. (A) Only 1, 2 and 4
2. (B) Only 2, 3 and 4
3. (C) Only 1, 3 and 4
4. (D) All of the above

BPSC remark: Gangetic River Dolphin (also recognized as India’s National Aquatic Animal) has been categorized as ‘endangered animal in the IUCN’s Red List. It is blind as it does not have a crystalline eye lens. Further, navigation and hunting are carried out by using echolocation. Thus all statements are correct. Option ‘D’ is correct.

Q88. Answer: C Same question: B-118 · C-147 · D-23

The other name of river Gandak is

1. (A) Burhi Gandak
2. (B) Mahananda
3. (C) Narayani
4. (D) Punpun

BPSC remark: The other names of river Gandak are Narayani and Salgrami.

Q89. Answer: D Same question: B-119 · C-148 · D-24

Gold is found in which of the following districts of Bihar?

1. (A) Munger
2. (B) Saran
3. (C) Siwan
4. (D) Jamui

BPSC remark: Gold is found in Jamui district previously it was found in Mungher district which included Jumai. The objection made is outdated.

Q90. Answer: C Same question: B-120 · C-149 · D-25

The Triveni Canal has been constructed on which of the following rivers?

1. (A) Kosi
2. (B) Sone
3. (C) Gandak
4. (D) Mayurakshi

BPSC remark: Triveni canal has been constructed on river Gandak.

Q91. Answer: A Same question: B-121 · C-150 · D-26

Assertion (A) : Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast and gold-bearing veins are found in Brazil. Reason (R) : At some points of time, these continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast.

Select the correct answer.

1. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. (C) A is false but R is true
4. (D) A is true but R is false

BPSC remark: Option 'A' is supported by latest knowledge in geology.

Q92. Answer: A Same question: B-122 · C-131 · D-27

Bihar’s geographical structure consists of rock systems. Match the rock systems with their descriptions :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
2. (B) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4
3. (C) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1
4. (D) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1

BPSC remark: Only this option provides correct watch of rock systems with their descriptions.

Q93. Answer: A Same question: B-123 · C-132 · D-28

Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising twenty-one islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?

1. (A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
2. (B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
3. (C) Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve
4. (D) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

BPSC remark: Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve matches with the description given.

Q94. Answer: A Same question: B-124 · C-133 · D-29

What is the local time of Thimphu (Bhutan) located at 90° East longitude when the time at Greenwich (0°) is 12:00 noon?

1. (A) 6:00 p.m.
2. (B) 4:00 p.m.
3. (C) 7:00 p.m.
4. (D) 6:00 a.m.

BPSC remark: The earth rotates 1o Longitude in 4 minutes. Hence it will rotate 90° in 6 hours.

Q95. Answer: B Same question: B-125 · C-134 · D-30

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. (A) Natural gas is found in Dharwar rock formation.
2. (B) Mica is found in Kodarma.
3. (C) Cuddapah series is famous for diamonds.
4. (D) Petroleum reserves are found in Aravalli hills.

BPSC remark: No Change. Dharwar Rocks and Aravalli hills belong to Archeau period in which gas or oil is not found Cuddapah series in not famous for diamonds. Diamond is found in Panna and Golkunda which are not part of Cuddapah

Q96. Answer: C Same question: B-106 · C-135 · D-31

How many latitudes are there on the globe drawn at 1 degree interval?

1. (A) 180
2. (B) 178
3. (C) 179
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: No Change. From 0° to 180° there would be 181 latitudes. But N pole and S Pole are points on the globe and are not drawn as latitudes. Hence we are left with 179 lines.

Q97. Answer: C Same question: B-107 · C-136 · D-32

The average height of the Kosi plain from mean sea level is

1. (A) 300 m
2. (B) 150 m
3. (C) 30 m
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: The kosi plain is in Bihar. It is a triangular plain with apex at Birpur (54M) on Nepal border. The base from Khagaria (36M) to Kursela (25M) runs parallel to river Ganga. The upper plain ( below 50M) has a small area. The middle plain (Saharsa, Supaul, Madhepura) is below 40M. The lower plain with about 60% area is around 25M. Hence the average height is 30 meters above…

Q98. Answer: B Same question: B-108 · C-137 · D-33

On which plateau, the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect each other?

1. (A) Bundelkhand
2. (B) Baghelkhand
3. (C) Malwa
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: Tropic of Cancer is 23.5° N and Indian standard date line is 82.5°E. They intersect in Baghelkhand. Bundelkhand is north of the Tropic and Malwa is west of the dateline.

Q99. Answer: C Same question: B-109 · C-138 · D-34

Which district of Uttarakhand is not situated along the Tibbet boundary?

1. (A) Uttarkashi
2. (B) Chamoli
3. (C) Almora
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: The bonders of Almora District connect other districts of Uttarakhand. All other options have one border along Tibbet.

Q100. Answer: A Same question: B-110 · C-139 · D-35

Where does the El Niño current flow?

1. (A) The Pacific Ocean
2. (B) The Indian Ocean
3. (C) The Bay of Bengal
4. (D) More than one of the above

BPSC remark: El Nino current flow is confined to Pacific ocean area and along Peru coast in Eastern Pacific even though its effect is wide spread including India. Since question is about its current flow only, hence the correct answer is option (A).

Q101. Answer: D Same question: B-128 · C-7 · D-49

Consider the following statements about the collegium system :

1. The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other seniormost Judges of the Court at that time.

2. The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system.

3. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system.

4. The collegium system was introduced in the year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the landmark First Judges Case.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (A) Only 1
2. (B) 1 and 2
3. (C) 3 and 4
4. (D) 1 and 3

BPSC remark: No Change. Parliament has not passed any law and there is no mentioned of collegium in the constitution. Justice Bhagwati’s judgement was in the 2nd judge case. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q102. Answer: C Same question: B-129 · C-8 · D-50

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India :

1. It added three words to the Preamble—‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’.

2. It added eight Fundamental Duties to the Constitution.

3. It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 47.

4. It granted power to the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, to disqualify members of the State Legislatures.

Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

1. (A) 1 and 2
2. (B) 3 and 4
3. (C) 2 and 3
4. (D) 1 and 4

BPSC remark: According to 42nd Amendment added three words in the preamble and also empower the President of India to disqualify the member in the consultation with the members of the State Legislature. Therefore, the option 'C' are incorrect.

Q103. Answer: D Same question: B-130 · C-9 · D-41

The specifications required for a community to be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are

1. indications of primitive traits

2. distinctive culture

3. shyness of contact with the community at large

4. backwardness and geographical isolation

Which of the above are correct?

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 2, 3 and 4
3. (C) Only 1, 3 and 4
4. (D) All of the above

BPSC remark: All four statements correctly apply to scheduled Tribes.

Q104. Answer: B Same question: B-131 · C-10 · D-42

From which country, the Indian Constitution has taken reference for the idea of the Fundamental Rights?

1. (A) Ireland
2. (B) United States of America
3. (C) United Kingdom
4. (D) Canada

BPSC remark: The idea of Fundamental Rights have been taken from U.S.A

Q105. Answer: C Same question: B-132 · C-1 · D-43

Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?

1. (A) Article 14
2. (B) Article 15
3. (C) Article 17
4. (D) Article 22

BPSC remark: Untouchability has been abolished under article 17 of the Constitution of India.

Q106. Answer: A Same question: B-133 · C-2 · D-44

The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rests with which of the following entities?

1. (A) The President
2. (B) The Chief Minister of the State
3. (C) The Prime Minister
4. (D) The Parliament

BPSC remark: Article 216 is clear on this point.

Q107. Answer: C Same question: B-134 · C-3 · D-45

The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of which specific group of people?

1. (A) Scheduled Castes
2. (B) Religious Minorities
3. (C) Scheduled Tribes
4. (D) Linguistic Minorities

BPSC remark: The fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Scheduled tribe.

Q108. Answer: B Same question: B-135 · C-4 · D-46

In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?

1. (A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
2. (B) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
3. (C) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
4. (D) Both (A) and (B)

BPSC remark: In the year 1973 for the first time the doctrine of “Basic structure” of the constitution was dealt by the Supreme Court of India in Kesavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala.

Q109. Answer: A Same question: B-126 · C-5 · D-47

Match the following political parties listed in List–I with their years of establishment in List–II :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–1, b–3, c–4, d–2
2. (B) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
3. (C) a–2, b–1, c–3, d–4
4. (D) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2

BPSC remark: The communist party of India was founded in 1925. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) was founded in 1964. The Bahujan Samaj Party was founded in 1984. All India Trinamul Congress was founded in 1988. Hence option 'A' is correct answer.

Q110. Answer: C Same question: B-127 · C-6 · D-48

Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?

1. (A) Article 110 (1)
2. (B) Article 122 (2)
3. (C) Article 120 (1)
4. (D) Both (A) and (B)

BPSC remark: Article 120 (1) the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in mother tongue.

Q111. Answer: D Same question: B-141 · C-19 · D-62

The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of RBI include which of the following?

1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)

2. Gold

3. Special Drawing Rights (SDR)

4. Reserve Tranche Position

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 2, 3 and 4
3. (C) Only 1, 2 and 3
4. (D) All of the above

BPSC remark: The Reserve Tranche Position was introduced in FER of RBI in 2002- 2003. Hence all four statements are correct.

Q112. Answer: D Same question: B-142 · C-20 · D-63

Consider the following statements about ‘Rules of Origin’ :

1. Rules of Origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product.

2. Rules of Origin help the custom agencies to know what regulations and fees apply to a given product.

3. These are used for the purpose of trade statistics.

4. Their importance is derived from the fact that duties and restrictions in several cases depend upon the sources of imports.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 3 and 4
3. (C) Only 1, 3 and 4
4. (D) All of the above

BPSC remark: No Change. All the four statements are true regarding rules of Origin.

Q113. Answer: C Same question: B-143 · C-21 · D-64

Consider the following statements about infant mortality rate :

1. It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, expressed per 10000 live births.

2. The infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189·6.

3. In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30.

4. As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of Registrar General of India (RGI), the State with the highest infant mortality rate in the year 2019 was Uttar Pradesh.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. (A) 1, 2 and 3
2. (B) 2, 3 and 4
3. (C) Only 2 and 3
4. (D) 1 and 4

BPSC remark: Statement 1 is wrong as it mentions 10000 instead of 1000. Statement 4 is wrong as it says Uttar Pradesh Instead of Madhya Pradesh.

Q114. Answer: D Same question: B-144 · C-22 · D-65

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables

1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital

2. increasing the knowledge

3. increasing the skill levels

4. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1
2. (B) 1 and 2
3. (C) 3 and 4
4. (D) Only 4

BPSC remark: No Change. Statement 4 is inclusive of statement 1,2 & 3.

Q115. Answer: C Same question: B-145 · C-23 · D-51

Consider the following statements regarding insolvency and bankruptcy :

1. Bankruptcy refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay off their debts as they become due.

2. Insolvency refers to a legal process, where the assets of the debtor are liquidated or reorganized for the benefit of creditors.

3. Bankruptcy is a state whereas insolvency is the conclusion.

4. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulatory body responsible for overseeing insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (A) 1, 2 and 3
2. (B) 2, 3 and 4
3. (C) Only 4
4. (D) Only 1 and 2

BPSC remark: Statement 1 is wrong as it says Bankruptcy instead of insolvency. Statement 2 is wrong as it says insolvency instead of Bankruptcy. Statement 3 says opposite of the correct definition. Only Statement 4 is correct.

Q116. Answer: A Same question: B-146 · C-24 · D-52

In which year was the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted?

1. (A) 1956
2. (B) 1954
3. (C) 1952
4. (D) 1950

BPSC remark: Industrial Policy Resolution was adopted in 1956.

Q117. Answer: D Same question: B-147 · C-25 · D-53

Consider the following statements about the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme :

1. The scheme offers a production-linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components.

2. The scheme has two categories of applicants, namely, global companies and domestic companies.

3. The scheme shall extend an average incentive of around 8% on net incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under the target segment, to eligible companies, for a period of six years.

4. The target segment under PLI shall include (i) laptops, (ii) tablets, (iii) all-in-one PCs, (iv) servers and (v) Ultra-Small Form Factor (USFF).

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

1. (A) 1 and 4
2. (B) 2 and 4
3. (C) 1 and 3
4. (D) 2 and 3

BPSC remark: Statement 1 & 4 are correct explanations of PLI scheme. Option D covers the incorrect explanations.

Q118. Answer: B Same question: B-148 · C-11 · D-54

Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme :

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines.

2. This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to benchmark the location and provides five centimetre level accuracy.

3. CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing.

4. The scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

1. (A) 2 and 4
2. (B) 1 and 3
3. (C) 2 and 3
4. (D) 1 and 4

BPSC remark: Statement 1 and 3 are incorrect regarding the SVAMITVA Scheme.

Q119. Answer: A Same question: B-149 · C-12 · D-55

Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, declaration of a financial emergency?

1. The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the State affairs.

2. Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President.

3. The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

4. Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1, 3 and 4
2. (B) Only 2
3. (C) Only 1 and 2
4. (D) All of the above

BPSC remark: According to Article 360 (4) (a) (i) (ii) and 360 (4) (b) statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct respectively.

Q120. Answer: D Same question: B-150 · C-13 · D-56

Which of the following factors could potentially contribute to stagflation in the Indian economy?

1. High inflationary pressures due to increased Government spending

2. Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth

3. Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending

4. Appreciation of the domestic currency leading to reduction of export competitiveness

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 2 and 3
3. (C) Only 1, 3 and 4
4. (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

BPSC remark: All four statements correctly describe the elements of stagflation.

Q121. Answer: D Same question: B-136 · C-14 · D-57

As per the Economic Survey, 2023, which of the following statements describe(s) the trend of Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. It has decreased due to the less participation of the private sector.

2. It has increased compared to the prepandemic levels.

3. It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed.

4. It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 3
2. (B) 2 and 4
3. (C) 1, 2 and 3
4. (D) Only 4

BPSC remark: No Change. The question asked for the "Trend" of FDI according to Economic survey 2022-23. Statement 2 can be seen on page no.271 para 9.16 which says "Not withstanding an overall drop in FDI in the first half of FY-23, in flow have stayed above the pre-pandemic level……." Here the trend is "falling" though it is still above the pre-pandemic levels. Hence the statement 1, 2…

Q122. Deleted by BPSC Same question: B-137 · C-15 · D-58

What is the current population of Gaya district of Bihar?

1. (A) 598000
2. (B) 320000
3. (C) 780000
4. (D) 234000

BPSC remark: According to 2011 Census the population of Gaya District was 43 lakh (4391418). According to the population estimates and projections from the latest revision of the UN World Urbanization Prospects, Gaya's 2023 population is now estimated at 598,345. These estimates represent the Urban agglomeration of Gaya, which typically includes Gaya's population in addition to adjacent…

Q123. Answer: A Same question: B-138 · C-16 · D-59

Which of the following statements about non-plan expenditures of the Central Government is correct?

1. (A) The expenditure is on interest payments.
2. (B) The expenditure is on science and technology.
3. (C) The expenditure is on agriculture.
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: No Change. Interest payment is a non-plan expenditure. Plan Expenditures are spent on the current development and investment out lays. Non Plan Expenditures are spent on the routine functioning of all the Government.

Q124. Answer: C Same question: B-139 · C-17 · D-60

Which of the following is not true about globalization and its impact on India?

1. (A) It has expanded trade in goods and services.
2. (B) It has led to greater flow of Foreign Direct Investment.
3. (C) Increase in exports is greater than increase in imports.
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: Option 'A' and 'B' are true and option 'C' is false.

Q125. Answer: A Same question: B-140 · C-18 · D-61

Consider the following statements about the latest developments in the Union Government finances :

1. The fiscal deficit of the Union Government had reached 9·2 percent of GDP during the pandemic FY21.

2. The fiscal deficit has moderated to 7·7 percent of GDP in FY22.

3. The revenue collection over the last two years has gone down.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (A) Only 1
2. (B) 1 and 2
3. (C) 2 and 3
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: Objection says 9.3% but latest figures available say 9.2% Hence option 'A' is correct. Economic survey 2022-23, Page-43

Q126. Answer: C Same question: B-4 · C-33 · D-79

Which of the following were the reasons for the failure of the Revolt of 1857?

1. The military superiority of the British

2. The rebels did not have a unified programme and ideology

3. There was a lack of support from all the sections of society

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) Only 1 and 2
2. (B) Only 2 and 3
3. (C) All of the above
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: All statements are correct reasons for the failure of 1857 revolt.

Q127. Answer: B Same question: B-5 · C-34 · D-80

The cook from Bihar who saved Mahatma Gandhi’s life from a murder attempt by food poisoning in 1917 was

1. (A) Muzaffar Ahmad
2. (B) Batak Mian
3. (C) Mir Bakawal
4. (D) None of them

BPSC remark: Batak(h) Mian Ansari saved Gandhi’s life when an attempt was made to poison him.

Q128. Answer: C Same question: B-6 · C-35 · D-66

The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937–1938 was organized by whom?

1. (A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
2. (B) Jayaprakash Narayan
3. (C) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
4. (D) Peer Ali Khan

BPSC remark: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati organized the Bakasht movement during 1937-38.

Q129. Answer: B Same question: B-7 · C-36 · D-67

Consider the following events during India’s Freedom Struggle :

1. Home Rule Movement

2. Surat Split

3. Kheda Satyagraha

4. Minto-Morley Reforms Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?

1. (A) 1–3–2–4
2. (B) 2–4–1–3
3. (C) 1–4–2–3
4. (D) 2–3–1–4

BPSC remark: The correct chronological sequence is 2, 4, 1,3.

Q130. Answer: D Same question: B-8 · C-37 · D-68

Lord Lytton is not associated with which of the following?

1. (A) The Strachey Commission
2. (B) The Arms Act
3. (C) The Vernacular Press Act
4. (D) The Ilbert Bill

BPSC remark: Lord Lytton is not associated with the Ilbert Bill. It was proposed during the tenure of Lord Ripon.

Q131. Answer: A Same question: B-9 · C-38 · D-69

Which treaty was signed after the Battle of Buxar?

1. (A) The Treaty of Allahabad
2. (B) The Treaty of Sugauli
3. (C) The Treaty of Bassein
4. (D) The Treaty of Salbai

BPSC remark: The Treaty of Allahabad (1765) was signed after the battle of Buxar (1764).

Q132. Answer: B Same question: B-10 · C-39 · D-70

The Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in which year?

1. (A) 1635
2. (B) 1632
3. (C) 1643
4. (D) 1648

BPSC remark: The Dutch East India Company established its first Factory at Patna in 1632.

Q133. Answer: C Same question: B-11 · C-40 · D-71

In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of the hunger strike as a weapon?

1. (A) Non-Cooperation Movement
2. (B) Bardoli Satyagraha
3. (C) Ahmedabad Strike
4. (D) Rowlatt Satyagraha

BPSC remark: Gandhi took recourse to a hunger strike for the first time during the Ahmadabad Mill Strike for mediation between mill-owners and striking employees.

Q134. Answer: B Same question: B-12 · C-26 · D-72

The Quit India Movement in 1942 witnessed significant contributions from leaders of Bihar. Which prominent Bihar leader was known as the ‘Bihar Kesari’ and actively participated in the Quit India Movement?

1. (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2. (B) Shri Krishna Singh
3. (C) Anugrah Narayan Sinha
4. (D) Ram Manohar Lohia

BPSC remark: Shri Krishna Singh, also known as Bihar Kesari, actively participated in the Quit India Movement (1942).

Q135. Answer: C Same question: B-13 · C-27 · D-73

In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government took which step to address the issue?

1. (A) Appointed Mahatma Gandhi as the Governor of Champaran
2. (B) Enforced strict curfew and imposed Martial Law in the region
3. (C) Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee
4. (D) Declared Champaran as an independent State

BPSC remark: During the Champaran movement, the British Govt. set up the Champaran Agrarian Committee to look into the grievances of the peasants.

Q136. Answer: A Same question: B-14 · C-28 · D-74

Match List–I with List–II :

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A) a–2, b–1, c–3
2. (B) a–2, b–4, c–3
3. (C) a–1, b–2, c–3
4. (D) a–1, b–4, c–3

BPSC remark: The correct match is a-2, b-1, c-3.

Q137. Answer: C Same question: B-15 · C-29 · D-75

Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to which of the following States of India?

1. (A) Kerala
2. (B) Andhra Pradesh
3. (C) Karnataka
4. (D) Madhya Pradesh

BPSC remark: Ambabai, the woman freedom fighter belonged to Karnataka.

Q138. Answer: C Same question: B-1 · C-30 · D-76

Who among the following was not the member of the Cabinet Mission?

1. (A) P. Lawrence
2. (B) A. V. Alexander
3. (C) J. Andrew
4. (D) None of them

BPSC remark: J. Andrew was not a member of the Cabinet Mission.

Q139. Answer: B Same question: B-2 · C-31 · D-77

“The Indian National Congress was founded on the basis of safety valve theory, to protect the British Government from threats.” Which leader said that?

1. (A) C. Rajagopalachari
2. (B) Lala Lajpat Rai
3. (C) Bipin Chandra Pal
4. (D) None of them

BPSC remark: This was originally said by A.O hume, But it was reiterated by Lala Lajpat Rai.

Q140. Answer: C Same question: B-3 · C-32 · D-78

In which of the following Indian National Congress Sessions, the resolutions related to the Fundamental Rights were passed for the first time?

1. (A) Surat Session—1907
2. (B) Gaya Session—1922
3. (C) Karachi Session—1931
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: The resolution on Fundamental Rights was passed for the first time at the Karachi session (1931) of the Indian National Congress.

Q141. Answer: C Same question: B-19 · C-46 · D-89

In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is written as ‘ $ ¸ * %’ and ‘BEAD’ is written as ‘# % ¸ ´’. How will the word ‘MADE’ be written in that code language?

1. (A) $ ¸ ´ %
2. (B) * ¸ $ %
3. (C) * ¸ ´ %
4. (D) # ¸ ´ %

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q142. Answer: D Same question: B-20 · C-47 · D-90

Q travels towards East. M travels towards North. S and T travel in opposite directions. T travels towards right of Q . Which of the following is definitely true?

1. (A) M and S travel in the opposite directions
2. (B) S travels towards West
3. (C) T travels towards North
4. (D) M and S travel in the same direction

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q143. Answer: B Same question: B-21 · C-48 · D-81

A man ‘Ramesh’, who owns a plot of land of 100 square yards, increases his plot of land by acquiring 10% more from his neighbour ‘Suresh’, who also owns 100 square yards land. After 2 years, he sells back 10% of the total plot to the neighbour. Which of the following is correct?

1. (A) Ramesh’s land is more than Suresh
2. (B) Suresh’s land is more than Ramesh
3. (C) Both are equal
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q144. Answer: D Same question: B-22 · C-49 · D-82

Find the odd pair among the following options.

1. (A) Millinery : Hats
2. (B) Brewery : Alcohol
3. (C) Stationery : Paper
4. (D) Snobbery : Shoes

BPSC remark: Snoberry is a fruit. Snoberry means Pride.

Q145. Answer: B Same question: B-23 · C-50 · D-83

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 132 156 ? 210 240 272

1. (A) 196
2. (B) 182
3. (C) 199
4. (D) 204

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q146. Answer: B Same question: B-24 · C-41 · D-84

Select the missing number from the given alternatives : 44 49 37 52 ? 41 58 35 53

1. (A) 56
2. (B) 77
3. (C) 66
4. (D) 63

BPSC remark: Correct Answer is 77 since middle column is 7 times the difference between left & right column.

Q147. Answer: D Same question: B-25 · C-42 · D-85

Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement. Statement : In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200, of which 160 runs were made by spinners. Conclusions :

1. 80% of the team consisted of spinners.

2. The opening batsmen were spinners.

Select the correct answer.

1. (A) Only 1 follows the statement
2. (B) Only 2 follows the statement
3. (C) Both 1 and 2 follow the statement
4. (D) Neither 1 nor 2 follows the statement

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q148. Answer: A Same question: B-16 · C-43 · D-86

In a code language, if GREAT is written as 718222620 and MONK is written as 13121411, then how will VIGOROUS be written in the same language?

1. (A) 22187121812619
2. (B) 21177121811619
3. (C) 22187131813620
4. (D) 21187111711620

BPSC remark: As per code language used in the question VIGOROUS will be written as 22187121812619 since alphabets are numbered serially either in forward sequence or in reverse sequence. Alternatively, one can quickly solve it by the process of elimination. Since “O” comes twice in VIGOROUS and its value is 12 from the code for MONK, so the answer is “A” since only in this option 12…

Q149. Answer: C Same question: B-17 · C-44 · D-87

Find the odd one in the following groups : Q,W,Z,B B,H,K,M W,C,G,J M,S,V,X

1. (A) Q,W,Z,B
2. (B) M,S,V,X
3. (C) W,C,G,J
4. (D) B,H,K,M

BPSC remark: No objection received — provisional answer confirmed final

Q150. Answer: A Same question: B-18 · C-45 · D-88

Four branches of a company are located at M, N , O and P . M is in the North of N at a distance of 4 km; P is in the South of O at a distance of 2 km; N is in the Southeast of O by 1 km. What is the distance between M and P in km?

1. (A) 5·34
2. (B) 6·74
3. (C) 28·5
4. (D) None of the above

BPSC remark: If 1/sqrt(2) is x, then N is x km East and x km south of O while P is 2km south of O. So, P is x km west & 2-x km south of N. Since N is 4 km south of M, so P is x km west & 4+2-x km south of M. So, the distance between P & M is hypotenuse of right-angle triangle with sides x and 6-x. So the correct answer is “A”. Even intuitively, this has to be less than x+(6-x) as sum of…