Free Law MCQs for APP, APO & Company Prosecutor — With Explanations

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FREE PRACTICE

Free Law MCQs for APP, APO & Company Prosecutor

Law practice with explained answers and primary-source verification.

Detailed subject roadmapPrimary-source linksRelated exam pathways
YOUR LEARNING DESK

01 Learn the statutory concept02 Connect it to legal facts03 Check the primary source04 Practise and revise

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CrackTarget / LAW / Free Law MCQs
PREPARATION OVERVIEW

What you should understand before you start

Free questions are for educational diagnosis; they are not an official examination. The pathway below explains the subject in manageable parts, connects examination preparation to authoritative material and helps avoid common study errors.

Editorial reliability: This is an independent preparation guide, not an official recruiting authority. Recruitment dates, selection rules and legal amendments must always be rechecked in the relevant current notification or statute.
DETAILED LEARNING PATH

Eight essential topics, explained

Use these sections as your chapter checklist. Read every concept in the primary legislation and revise it with an illustrative question.

01 / 08

What free questions should test

A useful question bank separates definitions, application, exceptions and comparisons. Section-number memorisation alone is not reliable preparation.

Study task: read → summarise → practise → verify

02 / 08

The three-law division

Categorise questions into BNS offence law, BNSS procedure and BSA evidence so candidates can diagnose weakness.

Study task: read → summarise → practise → verify

03 / 08

Corporate-law division

Keep separate groups for company incorporation, compliance, investigation, adjudication, Special Courts and fraud.

Study task: read → summarise → practise → verify

04 / 08

Evidence of correctness

Every question should be reviewed against the current Act, with the precise provision if known.

Study task: read → summarise → practise → verify

05 / 08

How to attempt a question

Identify the legal issue, eliminate alternatives using the legal elements and read the explanation even after a correct guess.

Study task: read → summarise → practise → verify

06 / 08

Develop an error notebook

Write the misunderstood proposition in plain English, the source of correction and a new original example.

Study task: read → summarise → practise → verify

07 / 08

Timed and untimed modes

Use untimed practice when learning a subject and a timed mixed set later for recall and speed.

Study task: read → summarise → practise → verify

08 / 08

Where paid mocks differ

A reliable paid product should offer realistic exam-specific distribution, more questions, saving attempts and detailed analysis. Those features are not claimed live here.

Study task: read → summarise → practise → verify

EFFECTIVE LEARNING METHOD

How to study this subject efficiently

Stage What to do Best resource
First reading Read the official statute or examination notice; mark definitions, provisos and exceptions. Primary law / original advertisement
Second reading Create a one-page issue map: what the provision governs, who acts and the legal consequence. Topic notes and statute text
Practice Attempt short scenario questions without looking at notes, then review each option. Original MCQs and authentic PYQs
Error correction Write down the exact reason for every wrong or guessed answer and revisit after 48–72 hours. Error log / revision sheet
LEGAL REASONING IN PRACTICE

Apply the law to a question

ILLUSTRATIVE ANALYSIS

If an option says “every electronic record is automatically admissible,” question the qualifier and consult the evidence statute before answering.

  1. State the exact legal issue without assuming the outcome.
  2. Identify the operative statute and the authority or person involved.
  3. Check the statutory ingredients, safeguards and exceptions.
  4. Apply the facts carefully and explain why alternatives fail.
Common mistake: Avoid incorrectly assigning one statute’s provision number to another.
PRACTICAL WEEKLY PLAN

Seven-day repeatable revision cycle

Day Focus Deliverable
Mon–Tue Read and compare core provisions Extract the required definitions and rules into your own checklist.
Wednesday Solve application questions Use fact patterns to distinguish similar principles and powers.
Thursday Review exceptions and disputed concepts Check provisos, qualifications and procedural safeguards in full.
Friday Study official old papers Tag each question by subject, source year and law-in-force date.
Saturday Timed mixed revision Record time spent, accuracy and questions answered by guesswork.
Sunday Correct and plan Redo incorrect questions and set next week’s weakest three priorities.

Adapt this learning schedule to your official syllabus, available time and prior familiarity. It is not an official or guaranteed success plan.

PRIMARY & OFFICIAL SOURCES

Verify the law and recruitment details

For questions involving a section number, eligibility requirement, date, amendment or examination scheme, prefer these original sources over unsourced summaries.

FREE CONCEPT CHECK

Five explained practice questions

These are original introductory questions, not represented as official previous-year questions. Open an answer after making your choice.

QUESTION 01

Which primary law primarily defines offences in the new criminal-law framework?

  1. BNSS
  2. BNS
  3. BSA
  4. Companies Act
Reveal correct answer and explanation

Correct option {chr(65+correct)}. {H(exp)} Check source ↗

QUESTION 02

What is the main function of BNSS?

  1. Company registration
  2. Criminal procedure
  3. Corporate audits
  4. Evidence relevancy
Reveal correct answer and explanation

Correct option {chr(65+correct)}. {H(exp)} Check source ↗

QUESTION 03

Which statute provides the principal general rules of evidence for fair trial?

  1. BSA, 2023
  2. BNS, 2023
  3. Companies Act
  4. CPC
Reveal correct answer and explanation

Correct option {chr(65+correct)}. {H(exp)} Check source ↗

QUESTION 04

Where should a candidate verify an authentic UPSC Company Prosecutor Recruitment Test paper?

  1. Private coaching brochure
  2. UPSC Recruitment Test Question Papers archive
  3. Telegram forward alone
  4. Newspaper advertisement alone
Reveal correct answer and explanation

Correct option {chr(65+correct)}. {H(exp)} Check source ↗

QUESTION 05

Under the Companies Act, what should a candidate distinguish before studying a default?

  1. Penalty adjudication versus criminal prosecution
  2. Share capital versus turnover only
  3. Paid mocks versus free mocks
  4. State PSC versus judiciary only
Reveal correct answer and explanation

Correct option {chr(65+correct)}. {H(exp)} Check source ↗

QUICK ANSWERS

Frequently asked questions

Is this an official government preparation site?

No. CrackTarget LAW is an independent educational website. Official notices, legislation and recruiting-authority instructions take precedence.

Can I use this page for more than one legal examination?

You can reuse foundation concepts, but compare every syllabus separately. Criminal prosecution, corporate prosecution and judicial-service examinations are different recruitment streams.

Are the listed examination patterns fixed for 2026?

Only an original current recruitment notification can establish a pattern, eligibility requirement or test date. This guide intentionally does not invent unconfirmed marks or dates.

How should I practise the material?

Read the primary Act, write short concept cards, solve authentic previous-year questions, then attempt fresh fact-based MCQs and correct errors.

Where can I find paid CrackTarget LAW mocks?

The LAW study section provides guides and free resources. An exam-specific paid product should be treated as available only if it has an active, clearly described listing in the CrackTarget Shop.

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Complete Free Law MCQ Practice Bank

Choose any of 19 legal subjects, practise 166 original questions and read the source-led answer explanations.

166Questions
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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ1

Which Article guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of laws?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Article 14

Article 14 contains both equality before the law and equal protection of laws; the two phrases are related but not identical.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ2

Which Article protects life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Article 21

Article 21 is the constitutional foundation of life and personal liberty protections, including procedural fairness as interpreted by courts.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ3

Which Article empowers a person to directly move the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: C — Article 32

Article 32 provides a constitutional remedy for enforcement of Fundamental Rights before the Supreme Court.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ4

Which constitutional Part primarily contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: C — Part IV

Directive Principles are set out in Part IV; Fundamental Rights appear principally in Part III.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ5

Under Article 226, which High Court power is broader than Article 32 in its stated scope?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Writs for Fundamental Rights and other purposes

Article 226 permits writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose within jurisdictional rules.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ6

Which Article expressly prohibits untouchability?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Article 17

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ7

Which Article is concerned with protection against double jeopardy for prosecution and punishment for the same offence?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Article 20(2)

Article 20(2) protects against being prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ8

Which Schedule specifies the distribution of subjects among Union, State and Concurrent Lists?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: C — Seventh Schedule

The Seventh Schedule includes the three legislative lists used with Article 246.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ9

Which Article sets out the amendment procedure of the Constitution?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Article 368

Article 368 governs constitutional amendment procedure, subject to the basic-structure limitation recognised by the Supreme Court.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ10

Which Article defines a Money Bill for parliamentary purposes?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Article 110

Article 110 specifies when a Bill is a Money Bill; its classification is not based merely on a financial topic.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q11

Which enactment principally defines substantive criminal offences in the new central criminal-law framework?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — BNS 2023

BNS defines offences and punishments; BNSS covers procedure and BSA covers evidence.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q12

Which colonial-era enactment was principally replaced by BNS?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: C — Indian Penal Code 1860

BNS replaced the IPC as the general substantive penal enactment; applicability to earlier acts requires attention to transitional law.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q13

The new criminal-law framework came into general effect on which date?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: C — 1 July 2024

The central government brought the three new criminal laws into effect on 1 July 2024, subject to notified exceptions including BNS section 106(2).

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q14

Which of the following is included as a punishment under the BNS?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Community service

BNS recognises community service as a statutory punishment for specified offences; it is not the punishment for every offence.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q15

BNS section 106(2) should be treated how when studying commencement?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Excepted from initial commencement notification

Official commencement information expressly excluded section 106(2) from the initial 1 July 2024 enforcement.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q16

If one person intentionally induces another to deliver property by deception, which offence family is most relevant?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Cheating

Cheating involves deception together with the legally required inducement and consequence; test all statutory elements.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q17

If property is entrusted to someone who dishonestly misappropriates it contrary to the legal duty, which broad offence is implicated?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Criminal breach of trust

Entrustment or dominion and dishonest misuse are central to criminal breach of trust; theft does not depend on entrustment in the same way.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q18

Which distinction is central to the law of theft?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Movable property taken dishonestly without consent

Theft centres on dishonest moving of movable property out of another's possession without consent, subject to the Act's terms.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q19

Which is a central criminal-law principle when judging an accused person's liability?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Statutory ingredients and required mental element must be examined

A prosecution must establish the offence's constituent elements; required mental state varies with the particular provision.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q20

Why should old IPC section numbers not be copied blindly into a BNS answer?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — BNS has its own numbering and structure

Many provisions have been reorganised; identify the statute and time period before citing a section number.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q21

What is the primary subject of BNSS 2023?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Criminal procedure

BNSS consolidates criminal procedure: investigation, arrest, inquiry, trial, bail and related processes.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q22

Which older central legislation was principally replaced by BNSS?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — CrPC 1973

BNSS replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 for the new framework, with transitional provisions to be considered.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q23

What is the ordinary purpose of an FIR in a cognizable-offence investigation?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — To begin recording information about a cognizable offence

The FIR is the record of information for a cognizable case; it is not a conviction or conclusive proof of guilt.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q24

Which authority ordinarily investigates cognizable offences?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Investigating police subject to law

Police investigative powers operate under criminal procedure and constitutional safeguards.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q25

Which statement about arrest is legally safer?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Arrest powers are subject to statutory conditions and safeguards

The existence of allegations alone does not extinguish safeguards; the police must meet applicable arrest conditions.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q26

What is the central difference between a bailable and non-bailable offence?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Whether bail is a right under prescribed conditions or generally rests on judicial discretion

Bail rights and discretion depend on statutory classification and other provisions; non-bailable does not mean bail is forbidden.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q27

Who ordinarily considers a charge and proceeds with trial after investigation under applicable procedure?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Competent criminal court

Criminal procedure allocates judicial functions to courts with proper jurisdiction and competence.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q28

Which procedural guarantee assists a person arrested and detained?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Access to applicable legal safeguards and production before a magistrate as required

The Constitution and procedure impose safeguards against arbitrary detention and protect access to legal process.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q29

Why does a charge-sheet not itself establish guilt beyond reasonable doubt?

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Correct answer: A — It is an investigation report and guilt is determined after legal process

The prosecution's report is subject to judicial scrutiny, trial and applicable standards of proof.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q30

BNSS provisions on bail and bonds are principally located in which range according to the government's 2024 explanatory note?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Sections 478–496

The Ministry of Home Affairs identifies sections 478–496 as the BNSS provisions covering bail and bonds.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q31

What is the main subject of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — General rules of evidence

BSA governs relevancy, proof, documents, witnesses and related evidence principles in judicial proceedings.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q32

Which predecessor enactment was principally replaced by BSA?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Indian Evidence Act 1872

BSA replaced the Indian Evidence Act 1872 as the central general law of evidence in the new framework.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q33

Which statement is correct about a legally relevant fact?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Relevance does not remove other admissibility requirements

Evidence must meet the applicable rules; logical relevance alone may not settle admissibility or proof.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q34

In a criminal trial, who generally bears the burden of proving the accused's guilt?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Prosecution

The prosecution generally bears the burden of proving guilt, subject to statutory presumptions and special rules.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q35

Which best describes documentary evidence?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Evidence contained in documents including electronic or digital records as recognised by law

The evidence law recognises documents and electronic or digital records; their proof must meet applicable requirements.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q36

Which statement about electronic records is accurate?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Their admission and proof depend on statutory rules

Electronic material is subject to conditions governing admissibility, authenticity and proof.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q37

What does cross-examination principally allow?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Testing a witness's evidence through questions by the adverse party

Cross-examination is a primary tool for testing credibility, perception and accuracy within evidentiary limits.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q38

What is the best description of a judicial admission?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — A statement that may dispense with proof of an admitted fact under applicable rules

Formal admissions can affect the need for proof, but the law imposes qualifications and courts retain powers where appropriate.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q39

What does the 'best evidence' approach commonly favour for a document's contents?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Primary evidence where the statute requires or prefers it

Documentary proof follows primary and secondary evidence rules with statutory exceptions, including electronic-record provisions.

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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)Q40

What is an appropriate approach to a statement based on hearsay?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Examine whether an exception or relevant statutory rule permits it

Hearsay concerns statements offered to prove their truth; statutory exceptions and context matter.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q41

Which section of CPC provides for the principle of res judicata?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: C — Section 11

Section 11 prevents re-litigation of matters directly and substantially in issue already finally decided in the specified circumstances.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q42

Which section of CPC addresses stay of suit based on a previously instituted suit?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Section 10

Section 10 addresses a subsequent suit's trial where a qualifying earlier suit is pending.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q43

Which provision generally recognises civil courts' jurisdiction unless barred?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Section 9 CPC

Section 9 of CPC recognises civil-court jurisdiction over suits of civil nature unless expressly or impliedly barred.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q44

What is the primary purpose of a plaint?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — To institute a civil suit by setting out claims and material facts

The plaint identifies parties, cause of action, relief and required particulars under the CPC.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q45

Which CPC Order deals principally with temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: C — Order XXXIX

Order XXXIX contains key provisions on temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q46

Which CPC Order primarily relates to execution of decrees and orders?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Order XXI

Order XXI is the principal procedural code for executing decrees and orders.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q47

Which CPC Order principally governs written statements and set-off/counter-claim?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Order VIII

Order VIII provides rules about defendant pleadings, set-off and counter-claim.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q48

Which Section of CPC deals with the inherent powers of the court?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Section 151

Section 151 preserves inherent judicial power where needed for ends of justice or preventing abuse, subject to settled limits.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q49

What distinguishes a decree from a mere interlocutory direction?

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Correct answer: A — A decree formally determines specified rights in a suit according to the statutory definition

Section 2(2) defines 'decree'; not every order or procedural remark has that character.

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Civil Procedure Code (CPC)Q50

What is the proper approach to territorial and pecuniary jurisdiction?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Identify court competence under applicable law before filing

Filing requires subject-matter, territorial and pecuniary competence, subject to statutory rules about objections.

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Indian Contract ActQ51

Under the Indian Contract Act, an agreement enforceable by law is called what?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Contract

Section 2(h) defines a contract as an agreement enforceable by law.

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Indian Contract ActQ52

Which section of the Contract Act addresses competence to contract?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Section 11

Section 11 requires majority, sound mind and freedom from relevant legal disqualification.

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Indian Contract ActQ53

Under section 7, acceptance of a proposal must ordinarily be what?

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Correct answer: B — Absolute and unqualified

A valid acceptance must conform to the offer and satisfy communication or performance rules as applicable.

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Indian Contract ActQ54

Which is an example of free-consent vitiating factor under the Act?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Coercion

Coercion is one factor preventing free consent under section 14; fraud, misrepresentation and undue influence also matter.

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Indian Contract ActQ55

Which section concerns compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Section 73

Section 73 addresses compensation for losses that arise naturally or are within the parties' contemplation, with statutory limits.

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Indian Contract ActQ56

Which is the general legal result of an agreement whose object is unlawful under section 23?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: B — Void

Section 23 describes when consideration or object is unlawful, rendering the agreement void.

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Indian Contract ActQ57

What is the central distinction between void and voidable agreements?

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Correct answer: A — Voidable may be avoided at the option of an entitled party

A voidable contract remains enforceable at the option of the party entitled to avoid it, while a void agreement lacks legal enforceability.

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Indian Contract ActQ58

Who is a 'bailee' in a contract of bailment?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Person receiving possession of goods for the specified purpose

Bailment involves delivery of goods for a purpose on terms requiring return or disposal after the purpose.

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Indian Contract ActQ59

What is the essential promise in a contract of guarantee?

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Correct answer: A — Surety undertakes liability for another's default

A contract of guarantee involves principal debtor, creditor and surety and depends on the terms and statute.

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Indian Contract ActQ60

Which contract requires one person to save another from loss caused by a specified person's conduct?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Indemnity

Section 124 defines indemnity by a promise to protect another from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor or another person.

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Law of TortsQ61

What is the central idea of negligence in tort law?

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Correct answer: A — Breach of a duty of care causing legally recognised harm

Negligence ordinarily requires duty, breach, causation and actionable damage subject to particular doctrinal rules.

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Law of TortsQ62

Which remedy is most typical for a proven civil tort claim?

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Correct answer: A — Compensatory damages

Tort remedies commonly include damages, although injunctions and other relief may be available.

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Law of TortsQ63

What does 'volenti non fit injuria' broadly mean?

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Correct answer: A — No legal injury to one who freely and knowingly consents to the relevant risk

Genuine and informed consent to a particular risk may furnish a defence; mere awareness of danger is not automatically consent.

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Law of TortsQ64

What is a private nuisance primarily concerned with?

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Correct answer: A — Unreasonable interference with use or enjoyment of land

Private nuisance protects interests in use and enjoyment of land, subject to context and applicable legal standards.

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Law of TortsQ65

What does defamation generally protect?

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Correct answer: A — A person's reputation

Defamation concerns actionable injury to reputation through publication of an unlawful imputation subject to recognised defences.

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Law of TortsQ66

Which is an essential ingredient of the tort of false imprisonment?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Total restraint of personal freedom without lawful justification

False imprisonment involves unlawful and complete restraint of personal liberty for any duration.

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Law of TortsQ67

What does vicarious liability refer to?

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Correct answer: A — Liability imposed on one person for another's tort in a qualifying relationship

Employers may be vicariously liable for torts within the course of employment, subject to legal tests and exceptions.

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Law of TortsQ68

In tort law, what is 'remoteness of damage' about?

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Correct answer: A — Limits on recoverable consequences of a wrongful act

Remoteness tests determine which consequences are sufficiently connected to the wrong to be legally recoverable.

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Transfer of Property ActQ69

Which statute mainly governs transfers of property by acts of parties in India?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Transfer of Property Act 1882

The Transfer of Property Act deals with transfers by acts of parties, subject to its scope and other laws.

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Transfer of Property ActQ70

Which section of TPA defines 'transfer of property' in general terms?

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Correct answer: A — Section 5

Section 5 gives the operative general definition of transfer by an act of parties.

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Transfer of Property ActQ71

What is 'lis pendens' primarily concerned with?

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Correct answer: A — Transfer of property during qualifying litigation affecting rights in it

Section 52 addresses certain transfers during litigation so proceedings and decrees are not frustrated.

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Transfer of Property ActQ72

What is the doctrine of part performance commonly associated with?

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Correct answer: A — Section 53A TPA

Section 53A provides a protective doctrine subject to its conditions, including applicable registration requirements.

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Transfer of Property ActQ73

What is the typical legal nature of a mortgage?

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Correct answer: A — Transfer of an interest in specific immovable property to secure payment or obligation

Section 58 concerns a transfer of interest in immovable property to secure a debt or specified obligation.

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Transfer of Property ActQ74

Which TPA section defines a lease of immovable property?

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Correct answer: A — Section 105

Section 105 defines a lease as a transfer of a right to enjoy immovable property for a specified period or perpetuity in return for consideration.

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Transfer of Property ActQ75

Which is a typical distinguishing characteristic of a gift under TPA?

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Correct answer: A — Voluntary transfer without consideration

Section 122 treats a gift as a voluntary transfer without consideration, with acceptance as required by law.

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Transfer of Property ActQ76

What is a charge on immovable property generally under section 100 TPA?

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Correct answer: A — Property made security for money without a mortgage transaction

A charge secures payment from immovable property but does not necessarily constitute a mortgage.

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Specific Relief ActQ77

Which Act deals principally with certain kinds of specific civil relief?

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Correct answer: A — Specific Relief Act 1963

The Specific Relief Act governs specified remedies such as specific performance, injunctions and declaratory relief.

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Specific Relief ActQ78

What does a decree for specific performance ordinarily direct?

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Correct answer: A — Performance of a contractual obligation rather than damages alone

Specific performance is a remedial order requiring performance of an enforceable contractual duty where the statute permits.

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Specific Relief ActQ79

Which of the following is a preventive relief?

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Correct answer: A — Injunction

Injunctions are preventive remedies for restraining or requiring conduct according to the statute and equitable principles.

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Specific Relief ActQ80

Which remedy seeks a declaration of legal character or right to property?

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Correct answer: A — Declaratory decree

Section 34 addresses declarations of legal character or right to property subject to the statutory proviso.

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Specific Relief ActQ81

What is rectification of an instrument aimed at?

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Correct answer: A — Correcting an instrument that fails to express the parties' true intention due to specified causes

Rectification deals with errors such as fraud or mutual mistake affecting the instrument's expression of intention.

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Specific Relief ActQ82

Which is an important caution about injunction claims?

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Correct answer: A — Relief depends on statutory conditions and competing legal considerations

Temporary and perpetual injunctions have different procedural and substantive requirements.

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Specific Relief ActQ83

What does rescission ordinarily achieve?

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Correct answer: A — Setting aside a contract under recognised grounds

Rescission unwinds a contractual arrangement when the statute and underlying legal grounds permit.

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Specific Relief ActQ84

Which is a key distinction between damages and specific performance?

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Correct answer: A — Monetary compensation versus ordered performance

Damages ordinarily compensate in money; specific performance directs the contractual performance itself.

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Limitation ActQ85

What is the central function of the Limitation Act 1963?

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Correct answer: A — Setting time limits for specified legal proceedings

The Limitation Act prescribes periods for suits, appeals and applications, with exceptions and computation rules.

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Limitation ActQ86

Under section 3, what is the general treatment of a suit instituted after limitation?

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Correct answer: A — Dismissal even if limitation is not pleaded, subject to statutory exceptions

Section 3 requires dismissal of proceedings instituted after the prescribed period, subject to sections 4–24.

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Limitation ActQ87

Which section generally addresses extension for sufficient cause in certain appeals or applications?

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Correct answer: A — Section 5

Section 5 permits condonation for qualifying appeals and applications; it does not generally cover suits.

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Limitation ActQ88

Does section 5 ordinarily apply to suits as a general rule?

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Correct answer: B — No, it generally concerns appeals and applications

Section 5's text addresses appeals and certain applications rather than extending limitation for ordinary civil suits.

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Limitation ActQ89

What happens when the court is closed on the last day of limitation in a qualifying case?

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Correct answer: A — Section 4 may permit filing on reopening

Section 4 permits filing when the court reopens in specified circumstances.

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Limitation ActQ90

Which issue can delay the starting point of limitation under applicable provisions?

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Correct answer: A — Fraud or mistake in qualifying circumstances

Section 17 addresses the effect of fraud or mistake in cases meeting statutory conditions.

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Limitation ActQ91

What does 'prescribed period' refer to under the Act?

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Correct answer: A — Limitation computed according to the statutory rules

The prescribed period depends on the applicable Schedule entry and Act's computation provisions.

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Limitation ActQ92

Why is it dangerous to assume every civil claim has the same limitation period?

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Correct answer: A — Different proceedings have different prescribed periods and accrual rules

Determine the exact remedy, applicable Article in the Schedule and when the cause of action accrued.

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Arbitration and Conciliation ActQ93

Which statute principally regulates arbitration and conciliation in India?

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Correct answer: A — Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996

The 1996 Act governs domestic arbitration, international commercial arbitration and related aspects of conciliation.

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Arbitration and Conciliation ActQ94

What is an arbitration agreement principally?

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Correct answer: A — Agreement to submit defined disputes to arbitration

Section 7 defines arbitration agreements and specifies how their existence may be evidenced.

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Arbitration and Conciliation ActQ95

Which section concerns referral to arbitration where a valid arbitration agreement applies?

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Correct answer: A — Section 8

Section 8 governs court reference of qualifying matters to arbitration, subject to statutory requirements.

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Arbitration and Conciliation ActQ96

Which section sets out grounds for an application to set aside an arbitral award?

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Correct answer: A — Section 34

Section 34 provides limited statutory grounds for setting aside an award; it is not a full appeal on merits.

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Arbitration and Conciliation ActQ97

Which section specifically concerns interim measures by the court?

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Correct answer: A — Section 9

Section 9 enables specified interim protections by courts; section 17 addresses tribunal-ordered interim measures.

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Arbitration and Conciliation ActQ98

Which body resolves the dispute in an arbitral process?

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Correct answer: A — Arbitral tribunal

The appointed arbitral tribunal decides disputes within its jurisdiction in accordance with the agreement and statute.

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Arbitration and Conciliation ActQ99

What is a core principle of party autonomy in arbitration?

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Correct answer: A — Parties may agree on many procedural matters subject to mandatory law

Arbitration allows party choice of procedure and tribunal within limits imposed by law and public policy.

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Arbitration and Conciliation ActQ100

What should a student distinguish about arbitral awards?

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Correct answer: A — Setting aside an award and appealing under the Act are different statutory remedies

Challenge and appeal routes differ and are limited by the statute; study sections 34 and 37 separately.

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Family LawsQ101

Which statute principally governs Hindu marriages for persons to whom it applies?

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Correct answer: A — Hindu Marriage Act 1955

The Hindu Marriage Act regulates marriage, nullity, divorce and related relief among persons within its scope.

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Family LawsQ102

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, which section lists conditions of a Hindu marriage?

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Correct answer: A — Section 5

Section 5 prescribes marriage conditions, including those on existing spouses, mental capacity, age and prohibited relationships, with statutory qualifications.

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Family LawsQ103

Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act principally addresses divorce?

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Correct answer: A — Section 13

Section 13 provides statutory grounds for divorce; other provisions cover mutual consent and particular relief.

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Family LawsQ104

Which section expressly provides for restitution of conjugal rights under the Hindu Marriage Act?

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Correct answer: A — Section 9

Section 9 governs applications for restitution of conjugal rights subject to legal requirements and defences.

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Family LawsQ105

Which section deals with maintenance pendente lite and expenses of proceedings under the Hindu Marriage Act?

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Correct answer: A — Section 24

Section 24 provides for interim maintenance and proceeding expenses in qualifying cases.

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Family LawsQ106

Which Act is central for intestate succession among Hindus in its scope?

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Correct answer: A — Hindu Succession Act 1956

The Hindu Succession Act governs specified succession matters and has undergone important amendments, including the 2005 changes.

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Family LawsQ107

What did the 2005 amendment to Hindu succession law notably affect?

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Correct answer: A — Coparcenary rights of daughters

The 2005 amendment recognised daughters as coparceners by birth under the amended section 6, subject to legal interpretation and statutory conditions.

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Family LawsQ108

Which judicial question is central in child-custody disputes?

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Correct answer: A — Welfare and best interests of the child

Child welfare is a paramount consideration in custody decisions, with the governing statute and individual facts also relevant.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ109

Under section 3 of the Companies Act, how many persons are ordinarily required to form a public company?

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Correct answer: C — 7

Section 3 provides for seven or more persons to form a public company, two or more for a private company, or one for an OPC.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ110

Who generally appoints the first auditor of a company other than a government company?

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Correct answer: A — Board within 30 days of registration

Section 139(6) specifies Board appointment within 30 days, with member appointment if the Board fails.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ111

Which section of the Companies Act addresses punishment for fraud?

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Correct answer: A — Section 447

Section 447 concerns fraud and its statutory punishment; its ingredients should not be equated with routine filing defaults.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ112

Which organisation is specifically associated with serious fraud investigation under section 212?

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Correct answer: A — Serious Fraud Investigation Office

Section 212 addresses investigation of company affairs by the SFIO in circumstances specified by law.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ113

Which section deals with adjudication of penalties by adjudicating officers?

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Correct answer: A — Section 454

Section 454 enables administrative penalty adjudication and has a distinct framework from criminal prosecution.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ114

What is the principal statutory role of NCLT?

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Correct answer: A — Tribunal adjudicating specified company-law matters

The NCLT exercises jurisdiction conferred by the Companies Act and other applicable laws; it does not replace criminal Special Courts.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ115

Which appellate body primarily hears appeals from many NCLT orders?

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Correct answer: A — NCLAT

The NCLAT hears specified appeals from NCLT under relevant statutes, subject to appeal provisions and limitations.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ116

What does the term 'independent director' relate to primarily?

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Correct answer: A — Corporate governance and Board composition

The Companies Act includes governance rules for independent directors, especially for specified classes of companies.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ117

Which section concerns auditor appointment in companies generally?

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Correct answer: A — Section 139

Section 139 contains the central statutory framework for appointment of auditors, subject to particular company classes.

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Companies Act & Corporate ProsecutionQ118

Which is a common preparation error concerning a corporate default?

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Correct answer: A — Assuming every non-compliance is fraud under section 447

Distinguish civil or administrative penalties, compoundable offences, non-compoundable offences and criminal fraud.

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Jurisprudence & Legal TheoryQ119

What does 'ratio decidendi' ordinarily denote?

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Correct answer: A — The legal principle necessary for the decision

Ratio decidendi is the binding legal reasoning necessary to decide a case, as distinct from incidental observations.

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Jurisprudence & Legal TheoryQ120

What is 'obiter dictum' ordinarily?

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Correct answer: A — An observation not necessary for the decision

Obiter dicta can have persuasive value, but differ from a decision's ratio.

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Jurisprudence & Legal TheoryQ121

Which jurist is closely associated with the command theory of law?

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Correct answer: A — John Austin

Austin developed a command-based positivist account emphasising a sovereign and sanctions.

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Jurisprudence & Legal TheoryQ122

What is the central focus of Hans Kelsen's pure theory?

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Correct answer: A — A normative hierarchy of legal rules

Kelsen sought a norm-based legal science distinct from sociological and moral evaluations.

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Jurisprudence & Legal TheoryQ123

What is the general idea of legal positivism?

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Correct answer: A — Law's existence is analytically distinguished from its moral merit

Positivist theories distinguish validity through social or institutional sources from the separate question of moral merit.

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Jurisprudence & Legal TheoryQ124

What does 'stare decisis' broadly require?

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Correct answer: A — Attention to binding judicial precedents

Courts follow applicable binding precedents within the judicial hierarchy, subject to recognised distinctions and overruling.

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Jurisprudence & Legal TheoryQ125

What is 'personality' in jurisprudence?

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Correct answer: A — Legal capacity to hold rights and duties

Legal personality is the law's recognition of an entity as a bearer of legal rights and obligations.

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Jurisprudence & Legal TheoryQ126

What is an important distinction between a right in rem and a right in personam?

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Correct answer: A — General enforceability against the world versus against determinate persons

Rights in rem typically correspond to duties at large; rights in personam operate against specific persons.

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Professional Ethics & Advocates ActQ127

Which body prescribes professional conduct standards for advocates across India?

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Correct answer: A — Bar Council of India

The Bar Council of India prescribes standards under the Advocates Act and its Rules.

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Professional Ethics & Advocates ActQ128

What should an advocate ordinarily avoid concerning a pending case?

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Correct answer: A — Private communications with the judge about the case

The BCI Rules prohibit private communication with a judge in relation to a pending matter.

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Professional Ethics & Advocates ActQ129

Which conduct is generally prohibited by professional ethics rules?

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Correct answer: A — Soliciting clients by impermissible advertising

Advocacy is regulated by specific restrictions on solicitation and advertising under professional standards.

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Professional Ethics & Advocates ActQ130

If a client insists on using unfair means before a court, what should an advocate do?

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Correct answer: A — Refuse illegal or improper conduct

Professional standards require an advocate to refuse to act in an unlawful or improper way.

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Professional Ethics & Advocates ActQ131

How should an advocate ordinarily treat the court?

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Correct answer: A — With respect while independently representing the client

Duty to the court includes dignity, candour and respect, alongside duties to the client.

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Professional Ethics & Advocates ActQ132

Can an advocate generally represent a matter where the advocate has a disqualifying pecuniary interest?

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Correct answer: A — Professional rules impose restrictions

BCI professional rules restrict acting or pleading where the advocate has a relevant financial interest.

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Professional Ethics & Advocates ActQ133

What is the ordinary ethical position concerning confidentiality?

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Correct answer: A — Protect client confidences within the governing legal rules

Advocates owe confidentiality duties, subject to statutory and professional limits.

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Professional Ethics & Advocates ActQ134

Which Act provides the central statutory framework for the legal profession of advocates?

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Correct answer: A — Advocates Act 1961

The Advocates Act creates the regulatory framework for enrolment and discipline of advocates and bar councils.

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Administrative Law & Natural JusticeQ135

What does 'audi alteram partem' broadly express?

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Correct answer: A — Hear the other side

Fair hearing is a central natural-justice principle where applicable, subject to legal context and exceptions.

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Administrative Law & Natural JusticeQ136

What does 'nemo judex in causa sua' principally prohibit?

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Correct answer: A — A person being judge in their own cause

The rule against bias aims to protect decision-making impartiality.

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Administrative Law & Natural JusticeQ137

What is the purpose of judicial review of administrative action?

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Correct answer: A — Testing legality within constitutional and statutory limits

Judicial review examines legality, jurisdiction, procedure and recognised grounds for intervention, not an unrestricted merits appeal.

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Administrative Law & Natural JusticeQ138

What is 'ultra vires' in administrative law?

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Correct answer: A — Beyond lawful powers

An act beyond the authority conferred by law may be invalid as ultra vires.

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Administrative Law & Natural JusticeQ139

What is legitimate expectation generally concerned with?

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Correct answer: A — Fair treatment arising from consistent representation or practice subject to law

Legitimate expectation may engage procedural fairness or review of departure from a representation, with contextual limitations.

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Administrative Law & Natural JusticeQ140

What is the primary role of a statutory tribunal?

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Correct answer: A — Exercising adjudicatory functions conferred by statute

Tribunals derive their jurisdiction and powers from their creating legislation and related constitutional law.

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Administrative Law & Natural JusticeQ141

What does delegated legislation describe?

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Correct answer: A — Rules made under authority granted by a legislature

Delegated legislation is subordinate law made within an enabling statute and subject to legal limits.

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Administrative Law & Natural JusticeQ142

Why must a statutory authority consider relevant factors and not rely on irrelevant considerations?

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Correct answer: A — To exercise discretion lawfully

Lawful discretionary decisions require attention to statutory purpose, relevant considerations and procedural fairness.

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Consumer Protection LawQ143

Which Act is the principal modern central consumer-protection statute?

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Correct answer: A — Consumer Protection Act 2019

The Consumer Protection Act 2019 provides consumer dispute redressal and related protections.

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Consumer Protection LawQ144

Which authority under the 2019 Act focuses on consumer rights and unfair trade practices at the central level?

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Correct answer: A — Central Consumer Protection Authority

The Central Consumer Protection Authority has statutory functions relating to consumer rights and unfair trade practices.

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Consumer Protection LawQ145

Which is a common ground of consumer complaint under the Act?

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Correct answer: A — Deficiency in service

Complaints may concern defective goods, deficient services, unfair practices and other statutory grounds.

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Consumer Protection LawQ146

What is an unfair trade practice?

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Correct answer: A — Conduct meeting statutory categories of deceptive or unfair commercial practices

The Act identifies unfair trade practices, including specified misleading representations.

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Consumer Protection LawQ147

What is product liability concerned with?

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Correct answer: A — Responsibility for harm caused by defective products under statutory conditions

Product liability under the 2019 Act can implicate specified manufacturers, service providers and sellers based on applicable rules.

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Consumer Protection LawQ148

Which forum system primarily resolves statutory consumer disputes?

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Correct answer: A — Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions

District, State and National Commissions exercise jurisdiction under the statute and applicable pecuniary rules.

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Consumer Protection LawQ149

What is a misleading advertisement?

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Correct answer: A — Advertising that materially misleads in a manner covered by law

Misleading advertising can invite regulatory measures under the consumer-protection framework.

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Consumer Protection LawQ150

Why should current pecuniary limits be checked from the relevant rules?

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Correct answer: A — They may be prescribed or amended by subordinate legislation

Forum jurisdiction limits need verification from current rules rather than older coaching tables.

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Negotiable Instruments ActQ151

Which statute principally governs cheques, bills of exchange and promissory notes?

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Correct answer: A — Negotiable Instruments Act 1881

The Negotiable Instruments Act regulates specified negotiable instruments and related liabilities.

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Negotiable Instruments ActQ152

Which provision creates the statutory cheque-dishonour offence subject to conditions?

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Correct answer: A — Section 138

Section 138 deals with dishonour of cheques for insufficiency of funds or specified related reasons where statutory prerequisites are met.

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Negotiable Instruments ActQ153

Which instrument is drawn on a specified banker and payable on demand?

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Correct answer: A — Cheque

The Act defines a cheque as a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand.

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Negotiable Instruments ActQ154

What is the broad role of a holder in due course?

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Correct answer: A — A holder meeting statutory requirements of consideration and good faith before due date

The statutory definition confers particular rights subject to its conditions and the nature of the instrument.

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Negotiable Instruments ActQ155

What does 'endorsement' of a negotiable instrument ordinarily involve?

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Correct answer: A — Signing for negotiation or transfer in a legally recognised manner

Endorsement is a recognised means of negotiation of order instruments, governed by statutory conditions.

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Negotiable Instruments ActQ156

Which section contains the presumptions commonly relevant to cheque cases, including consideration?

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Correct answer: A — Section 118

Section 118 sets out specified presumptions regarding negotiable instruments, subject to rebuttal.

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Negotiable Instruments ActQ157

Which section includes a presumption in favour of the holder concerning a cheque for discharge of debt or other liability?

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Correct answer: A — Section 139

Section 139 provides a rebuttable statutory presumption concerning the cheque's purpose.

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Negotiable Instruments ActQ158

Why is a dishonoured cheque not automatically a section 138 conviction?

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Correct answer: A — Statutory elements, notice and procedural requirements must be satisfied

The offence requires the statute's conditions, including legally enforceable debt and statutory demand/complaint requirements.

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Interpretation of Statutes & Legal MaximsQ159

What does the literal rule of statutory interpretation generally emphasise?

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Correct answer: A — Ordinary meaning of enacted words in their context

The literal approach begins with the statutory wording while recognising context and interpretive limits.

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Interpretation of Statutes & Legal MaximsQ160

What is the mischief rule associated with?

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Correct answer: A — Identifying the defect the legislation sought to remedy

The mischief approach considers the prior legal problem and the remedy Parliament intended.

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Interpretation of Statutes & Legal MaximsQ161

What does 'ejusdem generis' generally mean?

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Correct answer: A — General words may be confined by an identifiable class of preceding specific words

The canon can narrow general words following a list of specifics when a coherent genus exists and context permits.

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Interpretation of Statutes & Legal MaximsQ162

What does 'noscitur a sociis' suggest?

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Correct answer: A — A word may be understood by its surrounding words

Associated words help reveal contextual meaning when statutory terms are ambiguous.

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Interpretation of Statutes & Legal MaximsQ163

What is a proviso generally used for?

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Correct answer: A — Qualifying or excepting the operation of a main enactment

A proviso ordinarily qualifies the main provision, though its actual effect depends on statutory text.

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Interpretation of Statutes & Legal MaximsQ164

Which approach best handles apparent conflict between two provisions?

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Correct answer: A — Read them harmoniously where reasonably possible

Harmonious construction attempts to give effect to both provisions consistently with legislative intent.

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Interpretation of Statutes & Legal MaximsQ165

What does 'expressio unius est exclusio alterius' broadly convey?

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Correct answer: A — Express mention of one thing can imply exclusion of others in suitable context

The maxim is an interpretive aid, not an inflexible rule; statutory purpose and context can displace the implication.

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Interpretation of Statutes & Legal MaximsQ166

What is a common principle when penal provisions remain genuinely ambiguous after interpretation?

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Correct answer: A — Strict construction and benefit of reasonable ambiguity to the accused

Penal laws are construed strictly against expansion by doubtful inference, while applying the text and purpose properly.

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