UPSC Law Officer, Land & Building Department, Delhi 2027: Advertisement 12/2026, Common RT Syllabus & Preparation

CRACKTARGET LAW · UPSC COMBINED RT 2027

3 advertised vacancies · Vacancy 26091203226 · Advertisement 12/2026

Common Recruitment Test: 9 January 2027 · 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM · English

3

Vacancies

26091203226

Vacancy number

12/2026

Advertisement

09 Jan 2027

RT date

All 16 postsOfficial RT noticeFree MCQs

Prepare for the UPSC Law Officer, Land & Building Department, Delhi recruitment case under Land and Building Department, Government of NCT of Delhi. This page maps the announced combined Recruitment Test to the role and gives a targeted revision route. The RT is shared with 15 other law-related recruitment cases; it is not a separate question paper or a unique post-wise official syllabus.

← All 16 UPSC Law posts · Official combined RT notice (PDF) · Original Advertisement 12/2026 (PDF)

Official recruitment details

  • Post: Law Officer, Land & Building Department, Delhi.
  • Recruiting authority: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
  • Department: Land and Building Department, Government of NCT of Delhi.
  • Advertised vacancies: 3.
  • Vacancy number: 26091203226.
  • Advertisement: 12/2026; read original vacancy requirements.
  • RT: 9 January 2027, Saturday, 2 hours, offline objective MCQ, English.
  • Marking: equal marks per question; one-third deduction for an incorrect answer; no penalty for a blank answer.
  • Selection: RT shortlisting followed by post-specific eligibility verification and interview; notice gives RT/interview weightage of 75:25.

Important: use the official original advertisement, not a summary of a different legal post, for essential qualifications, experience, age limits, reservation, duties and application status.

What makes this post different

The useful role-specific lens is public-law and departmental litigation concerning land and buildings. Connect your reading to this kind of work so legal concepts become easier to apply. This paragraph describes a preparation perspective, not a separately notified RT syllabus or a change in official eligibility.

Priority study topics for this role

These are CrackTarget’s suggested emphasis areas within the 15-subject combined UPSC syllabus. Do not omit the remaining notified subjects.

  • Priority 1: Constitution — read the bare Act’s definitions and operative provisions, then attempt scenario-based MCQs.
  • Priority 2: Contract Act — read the bare Act’s definitions and operative provisions, then attempt scenario-based MCQs.
  • Priority 3: BSA — read the bare Act’s definitions and operative provisions, then attempt scenario-based MCQs.
  • Priority 4: IT Act — read the bare Act’s definitions and operative provisions, then attempt scenario-based MCQs.
  • Priority 5: public administrative powers — read the bare Act’s definitions and operative provisions, then attempt scenario-based MCQs.

Three practical issue-spotting exercises

  • Exercise 1: Analyse procedural fairness in an order. Check your reasoning against the enacted text and mark uncertainties for revision.
  • Exercise 2: Review public contracts. Check your reasoning against the enacted text and mark uncertainties for revision.
  • Exercise 3: Distinguish job duties from common RT syllabus. Check your reasoning against the enacted text and mark uncertainties for revision.

The common UPSC syllabus you must cover

UPSC’s combined notice prescribes the same 15 areas for every listed post. Your checklist is:

  • Constitution of India; Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023; Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023.
  • Information Technology Act 2000; Prevention of Corruption Act 1988; Companies Act 2013; Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003.
  • Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002; Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946; Environment (Protection) Act 1986; Competition Act 2002.
  • Trade Marks Act 1999; Indian Contract Act 1872; Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act 1999.

Open the master syllabus and all subject links or consult India Code for authoritative statutory text and amendments.

Ten-week preparation plan

  • Weeks 1–2 — foundation: Constitution, BNS and basic BNSS principles. Begin a one-page statutory definitions index.
  • Weeks 3–4 — evidence and public integrity: BSA, anti-corruption law, CVC, DSPE Act and IT Act. Solve short legal scenarios.
  • Weeks 5–6 — role emphasis: concentrate on Constitution and Contract Act; still revise Companies Act, PMLA and other common topics.
  • Weeks 7–8 — complete coverage: Indian Contract Act, Trade Marks, GI, Competition, Environment and all remaining weak topics.
  • Weeks 9–10 — test readiness: timed two-hour English MCQ sessions, negative-marking review, error-log corrections and bare-Act revision.

Free study material and answer practice

How to use mock tests and negative marking

Attempt a mixed paper in the official two-hour window. After the attempt, divide mistakes into (1) concept, (2) statute wording, (3) missed exception, and (4) avoidable guess. Because each incorrect answer costs one-third of that question’s marks, compare your raw accuracy with your penalty-adjusted score. UPSC has not specified the number of questions or a numerical RT cut-off in this combined notice; do not rely on unsupported predictions.

Frequently asked questions

  • Is Law Officer, Land & Building Department, Delhi a separate written examination? No. It is one of the sixteen recruitment cases in the combined RT announced for 9 January 2027.
  • Does this post have a different official RT syllabus? The combined addendum gives one syllabus of fifteen subjects. The priorities on this page are CrackTarget editorial guidance.
  • Where do I confirm eligibility? Check Advertisement 12/2026 using vacancy number 26091203226.
  • When are admit cards expected? UPSC says three weeks before the test; use the official UPSC portal for the actual release.

Prepared by CrackTarget LAW, updated 28 October 2026. Independent educational guidance; not an official UPSC publication. Read the original advertisement and official addendum before making recruitment decisions.

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Topic-Wise Law MCQs for This Guide

Practice curated questions, then explore the complete 166-question CrackTarget LAW bank.

24Questions
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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ1

Which Article guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of laws?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Article 14

Article 14 contains both equality before the law and equal protection of laws; the two phrases are related but not identical.

Read official reference / primary legal materials ↗
Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ2

Which Article protects life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law?

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Correct answer: B — Article 21

Article 21 is the constitutional foundation of life and personal liberty protections, including procedural fairness as interpreted by courts.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ3

Which Article empowers a person to directly move the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights?

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Correct answer: C — Article 32

Article 32 provides a constitutional remedy for enforcement of Fundamental Rights before the Supreme Court.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ4

Which constitutional Part primarily contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?

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Correct answer: C — Part IV

Directive Principles are set out in Part IV; Fundamental Rights appear principally in Part III.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ5

Under Article 226, which High Court power is broader than Article 32 in its stated scope?

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Correct answer: B — Writs for Fundamental Rights and other purposes

Article 226 permits writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose within jurisdictional rules.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ6

Which Article expressly prohibits untouchability?

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Correct answer: B — Article 17

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ7

Which Article is concerned with protection against double jeopardy for prosecution and punishment for the same offence?

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Correct answer: A — Article 20(2)

Article 20(2) protects against being prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ8

Which Schedule specifies the distribution of subjects among Union, State and Concurrent Lists?

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Correct answer: C — Seventh Schedule

The Seventh Schedule includes the three legislative lists used with Article 246.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q9

Which enactment principally defines substantive criminal offences in the new central criminal-law framework?

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Correct answer: B — BNS 2023

BNS defines offences and punishments; BNSS covers procedure and BSA covers evidence.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q10

Which colonial-era enactment was principally replaced by BNS?

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Correct answer: C — Indian Penal Code 1860

BNS replaced the IPC as the general substantive penal enactment; applicability to earlier acts requires attention to transitional law.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q11

The new criminal-law framework came into general effect on which date?

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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2024

The central government brought the three new criminal laws into effect on 1 July 2024, subject to notified exceptions including BNS section 106(2).

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q12

Which of the following is included as a punishment under the BNS?

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Correct answer: A — Community service

BNS recognises community service as a statutory punishment for specified offences; it is not the punishment for every offence.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q13

BNS section 106(2) should be treated how when studying commencement?

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Correct answer: B — Excepted from initial commencement notification

Official commencement information expressly excluded section 106(2) from the initial 1 July 2024 enforcement.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q14

If one person intentionally induces another to deliver property by deception, which offence family is most relevant?

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Correct answer: A — Cheating

Cheating involves deception together with the legally required inducement and consequence; test all statutory elements.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q15

If property is entrusted to someone who dishonestly misappropriates it contrary to the legal duty, which broad offence is implicated?

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Correct answer: A — Criminal breach of trust

Entrustment or dominion and dishonest misuse are central to criminal breach of trust; theft does not depend on entrustment in the same way.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q16

Which distinction is central to the law of theft?

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Correct answer: A — Movable property taken dishonestly without consent

Theft centres on dishonest moving of movable property out of another's possession without consent, subject to the Act's terms.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q17

What is the primary subject of BNSS 2023?

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Correct answer: A — Criminal procedure

BNSS consolidates criminal procedure: investigation, arrest, inquiry, trial, bail and related processes.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q18

Which older central legislation was principally replaced by BNSS?

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Correct answer: A — CrPC 1973

BNSS replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 for the new framework, with transitional provisions to be considered.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q19

What is the ordinary purpose of an FIR in a cognizable-offence investigation?

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Correct answer: A — To begin recording information about a cognizable offence

The FIR is the record of information for a cognizable case; it is not a conviction or conclusive proof of guilt.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q20

Which authority ordinarily investigates cognizable offences?

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Correct answer: A — Investigating police subject to law

Police investigative powers operate under criminal procedure and constitutional safeguards.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q21

Which statement about arrest is legally safer?

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Correct answer: B — Arrest powers are subject to statutory conditions and safeguards

The existence of allegations alone does not extinguish safeguards; the police must meet applicable arrest conditions.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q22

What is the central difference between a bailable and non-bailable offence?

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Correct answer: A — Whether bail is a right under prescribed conditions or generally rests on judicial discretion

Bail rights and discretion depend on statutory classification and other provisions; non-bailable does not mean bail is forbidden.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q23

Who ordinarily considers a charge and proceeds with trial after investigation under applicable procedure?

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Correct answer: A — Competent criminal court

Criminal procedure allocates judicial functions to courts with proper jurisdiction and competence.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q24

Which procedural guarantee assists a person arrested and detained?

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Correct answer: A — Access to applicable legal safeguards and production before a magistrate as required

The Constitution and procedure impose safeguards against arbitrary detention and protect access to legal process.

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