UPSC Law Recruitment Test 2027: 16 Posts, 335 Vacancies, Ads, Syllabus & Preparation

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16 recruitment posts · 335 vacancies · 1 combined test · 15 syllabus subjects

9 January 2027 (Saturday) · 2:00–4:00 PM · Offline pen-and-paper · English only

16

Recruitment posts

335

Total vacancies

15

Syllabus subjects

09 Jan 2027

Test date

LAW homeOfficial RT noticeFree MCQsPrevious papers

Welcome to the UPSC Law Recruitment 2027 desk. The Commission has announced one combined Recruitment Test for shortlisting candidates against 16 legal, prosecution, trade mark, government advocacy and related posts. Each vacancy retains its own original advertisement and eligibility conditions. The syllabus and test scheme below are common to the notice.

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UPSC Combined Recruitment Test 2027: official exam pattern

  • Date and time: Saturday, 9 January 2027, 2:00 PM–4:00 PM.
  • Mode and duration: two-hour offline pen-and-paper Recruitment Test.
  • Paper: objective multiple-choice questions; all questions have equal marks.
  • Language: English only.
  • Marking: one-third of the marks allotted to a question is deducted for each incorrect answer. No penalty for unanswered questions.
  • Shortlisting: candidates shortlisted in the RT must also satisfy all post-specific eligibility conditions to be called for interview.
  • Weightage: RT 75% and interview 25%, for candidates shortlisted from RT and qualified for interview.
  • E-admit cards: the notice says these will be released three weeks before the RT.
  • Centre changes: UPSC says no request for a change of centre will be entertained.

All 16 posts: choose your vacancy and preparation guide

Follow the preparation guide for your exact vacancy number. Study emphasis is tailored to the role, while the official syllabus remains common. Read the linked original advertisement before relying on eligibility or reservation details.

Post / Preparation guideVacanciesVacancy no.Advertisement
Additional Legal Adviser225091302213No. 13/2025
Assistant Legal Adviser1625091303213No. 13/2025
Deputy Legal Adviser1225091306213No. 13/2025
Additional Government Advocate525091301213No. 13/2025
Assistant Government Advocate125091304213No. 13/2025
Deputy Government Advocate225091305213No. 13/2025
Examiner of Trade Marks & Geographical Indications10025121401213No. 14/2025
Prosecutor, SFIO126070802211No. 08/2026
Assistant Legal Adviser, Directorate of Enforcement1226060645213No. 06/2026
Company Prosecutor1826060705227No. 07/2026
Legal Officer, DGCA1226060704227No. 07/2026
Assistant Public Prosecutor, Puducherry526060680213No. 06/2026
Superintendent (Legal)126070813211No. 08/2026
Assistant Public Prosecutor, CBI526060658213No. 06/2026
Assistant Public Prosecutor, NCT of Delhi14026091106212No. 11/2026
Law Officer, Land & Building Department, Delhi326091203226No. 12/2026

Download the 7 original advertisements and combined RT notice

The addendum is hosted on CrackTarget. Three advertisements were already available in the site’s PDF library and are reused. Four are linked directly to UPSC because UPSC’s server currently blocks automated re-upload. No link is labelled as a hosted copy unless it is.

Source: UPSC recruitment advertisement archive and the commission’s combined RT addendum supplied with this guide.

Common official syllabus: all 15 subjects

This list follows the UPSC combined notice. Open the linked notes or India Code to verify the current law. No separate official post-wise RT syllabus has been announced in this notice.

A focused preparation roadmap

  • Weeks 1–2: Constitution, basic legal reasoning, BNS offences and BNSS procedural concepts.
  • Weeks 3–4: BSA evidence, Prevention of Corruption, DSPE Act, CVC Act and IT Act.
  • Weeks 5–6: Companies Act, PMLA, Competition Act and Environment (Protection) Act.
  • Weeks 7–8: Trade Marks Act, Geographical Indications Act, Indian Contract Act and backlog topics.
  • Weeks 9–10: two-hour mixed MCQ mocks, negative-marking score review, statutory revision and an error notebook.
  • Final days: revise exceptions, definitions, provisos and official instructions. Study-plan allocations are CrackTarget’s advice, not UPSC’s instructions.

Continue with BNS notes, BNSS notes, BSA notes, Companies Act prosecution, and free practice MCQs.

Test centres listed by UPSC

Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur (Guwahati), Jaipur, Jammu, Kochi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai, Nagpur, Ranchi, Vishakhapatnam and Port Blair. Confirm your allotted centre in the official e-admit card.

Interview suitability and source-checking

The addendum lists interview suitability standards as General/EWS: 50+, OBC: 45+, SC/ST: 40+, and PwBD: 40+ on the relaxed standards stated there. These are interview suitability standards, not an announced RT cut-off.

DGCA reservation correction: the combined addendum’s category breakdown for the 12 DGCA Legal Officer vacancies appears inconsistent. The original Advertisement 07/2026 lists UR-05, EWS-01, OBC-03, SC-02 and ST-01; use the original advertisement for eligibility and reservation.

Frequently asked questions

  • Sixteen exams or one? One combined Recruitment Test covering 16 different recruitment cases.
  • Is the official syllabus shared? Yes. The combined addendum contains one list of 15 subjects.
  • Can someone apply now? The vacancies were advertised earlier; this test addendum is not a fresh application invitation. Check UPSC for application status.
  • Does CrackTarget conduct this recruitment? No. This is an independent educational hub; UPSC alone controls test instructions, eligibility, shortlisting and selection.

Updated 28 October 2026. Independent educational resource from CrackTarget LAW; not affiliated with UPSC. Verify amendments and post-specific requirements against original documents.

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Topic-Wise Law MCQs for This Guide

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ1

Which Article guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of laws?

Reveal correct answer and detailed explanation
Correct answer: A — Article 14

Article 14 contains both equality before the law and equal protection of laws; the two phrases are related but not identical.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ2

Which Article protects life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law?

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Correct answer: B — Article 21

Article 21 is the constitutional foundation of life and personal liberty protections, including procedural fairness as interpreted by courts.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ3

Which Article empowers a person to directly move the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights?

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Correct answer: C — Article 32

Article 32 provides a constitutional remedy for enforcement of Fundamental Rights before the Supreme Court.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ4

Which constitutional Part primarily contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?

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Correct answer: C — Part IV

Directive Principles are set out in Part IV; Fundamental Rights appear principally in Part III.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ5

Under Article 226, which High Court power is broader than Article 32 in its stated scope?

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Correct answer: B — Writs for Fundamental Rights and other purposes

Article 226 permits writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose within jurisdictional rules.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ6

Which Article expressly prohibits untouchability?

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Correct answer: B — Article 17

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ7

Which Article is concerned with protection against double jeopardy for prosecution and punishment for the same offence?

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Correct answer: A — Article 20(2)

Article 20(2) protects against being prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence.

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Indian Constitution & Fundamental RightsQ8

Which Schedule specifies the distribution of subjects among Union, State and Concurrent Lists?

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Correct answer: C — Seventh Schedule

The Seventh Schedule includes the three legislative lists used with Article 246.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q9

Which enactment principally defines substantive criminal offences in the new central criminal-law framework?

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Correct answer: B — BNS 2023

BNS defines offences and punishments; BNSS covers procedure and BSA covers evidence.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q10

Which colonial-era enactment was principally replaced by BNS?

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Correct answer: C — Indian Penal Code 1860

BNS replaced the IPC as the general substantive penal enactment; applicability to earlier acts requires attention to transitional law.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q11

The new criminal-law framework came into general effect on which date?

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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2024

The central government brought the three new criminal laws into effect on 1 July 2024, subject to notified exceptions including BNS section 106(2).

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q12

Which of the following is included as a punishment under the BNS?

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Correct answer: A — Community service

BNS recognises community service as a statutory punishment for specified offences; it is not the punishment for every offence.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q13

BNS section 106(2) should be treated how when studying commencement?

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Correct answer: B — Excepted from initial commencement notification

Official commencement information expressly excluded section 106(2) from the initial 1 July 2024 enforcement.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q14

If one person intentionally induces another to deliver property by deception, which offence family is most relevant?

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Correct answer: A — Cheating

Cheating involves deception together with the legally required inducement and consequence; test all statutory elements.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q15

If property is entrusted to someone who dishonestly misappropriates it contrary to the legal duty, which broad offence is implicated?

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Correct answer: A — Criminal breach of trust

Entrustment or dominion and dishonest misuse are central to criminal breach of trust; theft does not depend on entrustment in the same way.

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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)Q16

Which distinction is central to the law of theft?

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Correct answer: A — Movable property taken dishonestly without consent

Theft centres on dishonest moving of movable property out of another's possession without consent, subject to the Act's terms.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q17

What is the primary subject of BNSS 2023?

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Correct answer: A — Criminal procedure

BNSS consolidates criminal procedure: investigation, arrest, inquiry, trial, bail and related processes.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q18

Which older central legislation was principally replaced by BNSS?

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Correct answer: A — CrPC 1973

BNSS replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 for the new framework, with transitional provisions to be considered.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q19

What is the ordinary purpose of an FIR in a cognizable-offence investigation?

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Correct answer: A — To begin recording information about a cognizable offence

The FIR is the record of information for a cognizable case; it is not a conviction or conclusive proof of guilt.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q20

Which authority ordinarily investigates cognizable offences?

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Correct answer: A — Investigating police subject to law

Police investigative powers operate under criminal procedure and constitutional safeguards.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q21

Which statement about arrest is legally safer?

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Correct answer: B — Arrest powers are subject to statutory conditions and safeguards

The existence of allegations alone does not extinguish safeguards; the police must meet applicable arrest conditions.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q22

What is the central difference between a bailable and non-bailable offence?

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Correct answer: A — Whether bail is a right under prescribed conditions or generally rests on judicial discretion

Bail rights and discretion depend on statutory classification and other provisions; non-bailable does not mean bail is forbidden.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q23

Who ordinarily considers a charge and proceeds with trial after investigation under applicable procedure?

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Correct answer: A — Competent criminal court

Criminal procedure allocates judicial functions to courts with proper jurisdiction and competence.

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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)Q24

Which procedural guarantee assists a person arrested and detained?

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Correct answer: A — Access to applicable legal safeguards and production before a magistrate as required

The Constitution and procedure impose safeguards against arbitrary detention and protect access to legal process.

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